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lawyer [7]
3 years ago
15

If a firm accepts less than all of its prospective projects with positive NPVs when evaluated at their own risk-adjusted costs o

f capital and those mutually exclusive projects with the highest positive NPVs, then it is said to be employing capital rationing. True or false
Business
1 answer:
gtnhenbr [62]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: True

Explanation:

  Yes, the given statement is true that the employing capital rationing is one of the process in which it placing some restriction on the investment amount of the project in an organization.

 In the capital rationing strategy, if the company accepts less amount from all its prospective projects along with some positive net profit value (NPVs) the it is evaluated on the basis of their own risk.

 The employ capital rationing helps in making various types of decisions related to investment for the company and in this system only limited projects are taken due to the limitation of the resources.  

 Therefore, The given statement is true.

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Roasters Corporation and Outdoor Barbecues, Inc., enter into a contract for a sale of a commercial grill. The contract requires
vekshin1

Answer:

A) Roasters delivers the goods to Speedy

Explanation:

Risk of loss under the law of contracts is used to determine which party should bear the burden of risk for damage occurring to goods after the sale has been completed, but before delivery has occurred. This is normally used after the contract is formed but before buyer receives goods, something bad happens.

  1. The breaching rule applies risk of loss on the seller if at the time of delivery, the goods show up broken.
  2. Risk of loss shifts from seller to buyer at the time that seller completes its delivery obligations
  3. For a destination contract, then risk of loss is on the seller
  4. For a delivery contract, then risk of loss is on the seller
  5. if the seller is a merchant, then the risk of loss shifts to the buyer upon buyer's "receipt" of the goods. If the buyer never takes possession, then the seller still has the risk of loss
8 0
3 years ago
A project has several teams. Team C has repeatedly missed deadlines in the past. This has caused team D to have to crash the cri
Bess [88]

Answer:

cfg

Explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
Fidelity Investments is the second largest mutual fund and financial services group worldwide. It has various offices in cities
mel-nik [20]

Answer:

Intangibility

Explanation:

Intangibility means a service that is not physical and therefore cannot be touched. Products are tangible and services are intangible in nature. Intangibility of services is gotten from the fact that a service cannot be seen or touched. A service is carried out and delivered on spot therefore it cannot be measured as easily as a tangible product.

A lot of problem are encountered in service marketing as a result of intangibility of services. Tangible elements have to be added your service to supplement your marketing strategy.

Another problem that arises from intangibility of services is that services cannot be stored.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Roadside Markets has 8.45 percent coupon bonds outstanding that mature in 10.5 years. The bonds pay interest semiannually. What
Anarel [89]

Answer:

Total $1,091.0030

Explanation:

The market value of the bond will be the sum of the present value of the cuopon payment and the maturity date:

present alue of cuopon payment will be calculate as present value of an ordinary annuity:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 42.25   (1,000 face value x 8.45% /2 payment per year)

time 21 (10 years at 2 payment per year+ 1 payment)

rate 0.036   (here we use the YTM rate /2 because there are 2 payment per year)

42.25 \times \frac{1-(1+0.036)^{-21} }{0.036} = PV\\

PV $615.1803

<u>Then, for the present value at maturity, we calculate the present value of a lump sum</u>

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   1,000.00

time   21.00

rate  0.036

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.036)^{21} } = PV  

PV   475.82

<u>Finally, we add them both together</u>

PV c $615.1803

PV m  $475.8227

Total $1,091.0030

8 0
3 years ago
Activity based costing _____________
Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

Answer:

1. groups costs into meaningful buckets that are then distributed based on the activity or product they support.

Explanation:

Activity based costing basically categorizes various overheads into different activities, that leads to charge of overheads based on different activities.

In this manner overheads that shall be charged on some standard products based on the activities involved is charged accordingly, and not based on standard overhead allocation rate.

Basically the overheads are divided into various activities and then distributed  to each product based on the volume of activity in the manufacturing process of such activity.

7 0
3 years ago
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