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zavuch27 [327]
3 years ago
12

On January 1, a company issues bonds dated January 1 with a par value of $250,000. The bonds mature in 5 years. The contract rat

e is 9%, and interest is paid semiannually on June 30 and December 31. The market rate is 8% and the bonds are sold for $260,148. The journal entry to record the first interest payment using straight-line amortization is
Business
1 answer:
-BARSIC- [3]3 years ago
6 0

Answer and Explanation:

Given:

Sales price of bond = $260,148

Issue price of bond = $250,000

Total premium on bond = $260,148 - $250,000

Total premium on bond = $10,148

Number of year = 5 year = 5 × 2 semi-annual = 10

Per period payment = Total premium on bond / 10

Per period payment = $10,148 / 10 = $1,014.80

Cash paid = $250,000 × (9%/2) = $11,250  

                               Journal Entry

Date       Account Title and Explanation    Debit     Credit

              Interest                     A\c Dr     10,235.20  

              Premium on Bond   A\c Dr        1,014.80  

              Cash                        A\c Cr                        11,250.00

Note: interest calculated from balancing figure

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8. The current price of a stock is $65.88. If dividends are expected to be $1 per share for the next five years, and the require
Snowcat [4.5K]

Answer:

a). Future price of stock in five years=$98.97

b). The current stock price will not be affected by an increase of $1 in stock price, this is because increase in stock price is a function of the expected dividend growth rate and not the current stock price

Explanation:

a). Use the expression for calculating the required rate of return as to determine the expected dividend growth rate follows:

RRR=(EDP/SP)+DGR

where;

RRR=required rate of return

EDP=expected dividend payment

SP=share price

DGR=dividend growth rate

In our case:

RRR=10%=10/100=0.1

EDP=$1

SP=$65.88

DGR=y

replacing in the original expression;

0.1=(1/65.88)+y

y=0.1-(1/65.88)

y=0.0848

The expected dividend growth rate=8.48%

Future price of stock=Current price(1+DGR)^n

where;

Current price=$65.88

DGR=8.48%=8.48/100=0.0848

n=5 years

replacing;

Future price of stock=65.88(1+0.0848)^5

Future price of stock=$98.97

b). The current stock price will not be affected by an increase of $1 in stock price, this is because increase in stock price is a function of the expected dividend growth rate and not the current stock price

7 0
3 years ago
Why is it important to understand the specific steps related to the phases of
Liula [17]
Because that way you can do better on that topic
7 0
3 years ago
As an alternatives to FDI, firms could choose ______, which involves producing goods at home and shipping them overseas, or ____
Vladimir79 [104]

Answer:

As an alternatives to FDI, firms could choose <u>EXPORTING</u>, which involves producing goods at home and shipping them overseas, or <u>LICENSING</u>, which is granting a foreign firm the right to produce and sell a product in return for a royalty fee.

Explanation:

To export a good (or service) means to sell a domestically produced good to other foreign countries. Traditionally basically only goods were exported, but lately there has been a surge of service exports, e.g. outsourcing customer services to India.

Licensing a product or service refers to a licensor giving permission to produce a product or service and sell it within a given market, usually foreign market. The licensor charges royalties to the licensee in exchange for that permission.

7 0
3 years ago
Home and More is considering a project with cash flows of -368000, 133,500, -35600, 244700 and 258000 for year 0 to 4 respective
Semenov [28]

Answer:

MIRR is 17.3%

As the MIRR is greater than the Cost of Capital, hence the project must be accepted.

Explanation:

The first step is to find the present value of Cashflows:

Investment Phase Present Value:

Y0 = $368,000  

Return Phase Present Value:

Y1 = $133,500 * 14.6% =                    $119,492

Y2 = ($35,600)  * 14.6% =                 ($27,107)

Y3 = $244,700 * 14.6% =                   $162,585

Y4 = 258,000 * 14.6% =                    <u>$149,583</u>

Total Return Phas Present Value:   $404,553

Now as we know that:

1 + MIRR = (1 + Ke) * (PVR / PVI)^1/n

Here

Ke is 14.6%

PVR is $404,553

PVI is $368,000

n is 4 years duration

By putting values, we have:

1 + MIRR = (1 + 14.6%) * ($404,553 / $368,000)^1/4

1 + MIRR = (1.146) * (1.024)

1 + MIRR = 1.173

MIRR = 1.173  - 1 = 17.3%

As the MIRR is greater than the Cost of Capital, hence the project must be accepted.

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