Answer:
Premium = $5.76 -$5.51 = 0.25
Percentage of premium = 0.25/5.76 x 100
= 4.34% premium
The correct answer is A
Explanation:
This is an indirect quote in which dollar is fixed and shekels is variable. In order to obtain the 180-day forward rate, premium of $0.25 has been deducted. In indirect quote, premium is deducted from the spot rate in order to determine the forward rate ie $5.76 - $0.25 = $5.51. The percentage of premium is calculated as premium divided by spot rate multiplied by 100.
Answer: False
Explanation:
The contract is such that Molly agreed to bring bracelets if Jean would pay for said bracelets.
The terms of the contract therefore are that Jean would pay and Molly would deliver. Jean then calls Molly and says that they will be unable to pay which means that they are not going to be able to hold up their responsibilities in the contract.
Molly has the right to then cancel the contract because the other party will not be able to perform their obligations and face no repercussion for it.
Answer:
The ending retained earning would be $2,400
Explanation:
For computing the ending retained earnings balance, we have to use the formula which is shown below:
Even in the question, the formula is given so we use it
Ending retained earnings = Beginning retained earnings + net income - dividend
Ending retained earnings = 0 + $6,000 - $3,600
In the question, the beginning retained earnings balance is not given so we assume zero balance
So, the ending retained earnings would be $2,400
Answer:
When ATC curve is decreasing, we know that the MC curve is
below the ATC curve, and when the ATC curve is increasing, we know that MC is above the ATC curve
Explanation:
ATC refers to average total cost and MC refers to marginal cost, these both curve derive from total cost when MC is below ATC curve it shows that MC is less than ATC at that point ATC is falling.
Likewise, when MC is above ATC curve it shows MC is grater than ATC curve and at that point ATC is rising.
furthermore, when MC is equal to ATC at that point ATC is at minimum point.
Answer with Explanation:
Tangible assets fall under the scope of International Accounting Standard IAS-36 Property, Plant and Equipment which says that assets that qualify following conditions, must be capitalized:
- Assets that have life expectancy of more than a year.
- Benefits of the Assets are controlled by the entity that will flow towards the company.
Now here, the life expectancy of laboratory equipment is unknown and also that we don't know if the asset can be resold in the market or not. This means, if the asset has life expectancy is no more than a year and that the future benefits will flow towards the company then it must be capitalized otherwise it must be expensed out as per the guidelines of International Accounting Standard IAS-38 Intangible Assets, which says that the research cost prior to the development expenditure must be expensed out.
The other two costs are revenue expenditure and must be expensed out under the name research and development cost as per the guidelines of IAS-38.