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NemiM [27]
3 years ago
8

Prior to liquidating their partnership, Pepper and Reynell had capital accounts of $13,000 and $49,000, respectively. The partne

rship assets were sold for $24,000. The partnership had no liabilities. Pepper and Reynell share income and losses equally. Required: a. Determine the amount of Pepper's deficiency. $ b. Determine the amount distributed to Reynell, assuming Pepper is unable to satisfy the deficiency. $
Business
1 answer:
brilliants [131]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Explanation:

Based on the information that has been given in the question, the following answer can be provided

a. Determine the amount of Pepper's deficiency.

First, we need to calculate the loss that was recognized. This will be:

= ($13,000 + $49,000) - $24,000

= $62,000 - $24,000

= $38,000

Pepper's share of the loss will then be:

= $38,000/2

= $19,000

Pepper's deficiency will now be his contribution minus the loss incurred. This will be:

= $19,000 - $13,000

= $6,000

Deficiency of $6000

b. Determine the amount distributed to Reynell, assuming Pepper is unable to satisfy the deficiency.

This will be:

= $49,000 - $19000 - $6,000

= $49,000 - $25,000

= $24,000

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Lincoln Park Co. has a bond outstanding with a coupon rate of 6.04 percent and semiannual payments. The yield to maturity is 6.1
Reil [10]

Answer:

value of the bond = $2,033.33

Explanation:

We know,

Value of the bond, B_{0} = [I * \frac{1 - (1 + i)^{-n}}{i}] + \frac{FV}{(1 + i)^n}

Here,

Face value of par value, FV = $2,000

Coupon payment, I = Face value or Par value × coupon rate

Coupon payment, I = $2,000 × 6.04%

Coupon payment, I = $128

yield to maturity, i = 6.1% = 0.061

number of years, n = 15

Therefore, putting the value in the formula, we can get,

B_{0} = [128 * \frac{1 - (1 + 0.061)^{-7}}{0.061}] + [\frac{2,000}{(1 + 0.061)^7}]

or, B_{0} = [128 * \frac{1 - (1.061)^{-7}}{0.061}] + [\frac{2,000}{(1.061)^7}]

or, B_{0} = [128 * \frac{0.3393}{0.061}] + 1,321.3635

or, B_{0} = [128 * 5.5623] + 1,321.3635

or, B_{0} = $711.9738 + 1,321.3635

Therefore, value of the bond = $2,033.33

3 0
3 years ago
Nash Co. sells $435,000 of 12% bonds on June 1, 2020. The bonds pay interest on December 1 and June 1. The due date of the bonds
garri49 [273]

Answer:

\left[\begin{array}{ccccccc}\\ &&$Carrying Value&$Cash&$Int. exp&$Amortization&$E.Carrying\\& 1&493574.88&26100&19743&6357&487217.88\\& 2&487217.88&26100&19488.72&6611.28&480606.6\\& 3&480606.6&26100&19224.26&6875.74&473730.86\\& 4&473730.86&26100&18949.23&7150.77&466580.09\\& 5&466580.09&26100&18663.2&7436.8&459143.29\\& 6&459143.29&26100&18365.73&7734.27&451409.02\\& 7&451409.02&26100&18056.36&8043.64&443365.38\\& 8&443365.38&26100&17734.62&8365.38&435000\\\end{array}\right]

<u>Journal entries:</u>

cash       493,574.88 debit

 bonds payable   435,000.00 credit

 premium on bp     58,574.88 credit

--to record issuance--

Interest expense 19743

Amortization 6357

cash 26100

--to record Dec 31st, 2020--

Interest expense 19488.72

Amortization 6611.28

cash 26100

--to record June 30th, 2021--

bonds payable    130,500.00 debit

premium on bp       13,681.98 debit

interest expense    17,400.00 debit

      gain on redemption           25,081.98 credit

       cash                                 136,500.00 credit

--to record redemption--

premium on BP      4,813.04 debit

interest expense  13,456.96 debit

        cash                         18,270 credit

-- to record December 31st, 2021--

Explanation:

First, we solve for the proceeds from the bonds payable:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 26,100 (435,000 x 12% / 2)

time 8 ( 4 years x 2)

yield to maturity  0.04 ( 8% / 2)

26100 \times \frac{1-(1+0.04)^{-8} }{0.04} = PV\\

PV $175,724.6412

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   435,000.00

time   8.00

rate  0.04

\frac{435000}{(1 + 0.04)^{8} } = PV  

PV   317,850.24

PV c $175,724.6412

PV m  $317,850.2392

Total $493,574.8804

We now build the amortization schedule.

We take this value, we multiply by the interest rate and then, solve for amortization and ending carrying value.

<u>To record the redemption:</u>

accrued interest:

435,000 x 0.12 x 4/12 (months from June to oct) = 17,400

premium:

480,606.6 - 435,000 = 45,606.6

proportional of premium:

45,606 / 435,000 x 130,500 = 13.681,98

we now solve for the gain/loss on redemption:

130,500 + 13,681.98 + 17,400 = 161.581,9 value redeem

                                      for cash 136,500

gain on redemption 25.081,98

bonds payable    130,500.00 debit

premium on bp       13,681.98 debit

interest expense    17,400.00 debit

      gain on redemption           25,081.98 credit

       cash                                 136,500.00 credit

Now, we solve for Dec 31st, 2021 entry.

bonds payable: 435,000 - 130,500 = 304,500

premium: 45,606 - 13,681.98 = 31.924,02

interest expense:

(304,500 + 31,924.02) x 0.04 = 13,456.96

cash outlay:

304,500 x 0.06 = 18,270

amortization 18,270 - 13,456.96 = 4,813.04

6 0
3 years ago
Nancy would like to double the money in her retirement account in five years. According to the rule of 70, what rate of interest
frutty [35]

Answer:

70/annual percentage

70/5=14

Explanation:

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3 years ago
Martin transfers real estate with an adjusted basis of $260,000 and fair market value of $350,000 to a newly formed corporation
katrin [286]

Answer:

$40,000

Explanation:

We can calculate recognized gain on the transfer and basis for his stock just by deducting adjusted basis value from liability on the transfered real estate.

Calcuation

iability on the transfered real estate        $300,000

less: adjusted basis value                       ($260,000)

Gain recognized                                        $40,000

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3 years ago
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RoseWind [281]

Answer:

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