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Yakvenalex [24]
3 years ago
9

The Net Present Value method of project evaluation is preferred over the Internal Rate of Return method because the Net Present

Value method:
a-Considers the time value money where IRR does not.


b-Considers the risk of the project where the Internal Rate of Return does not.


c-Includes all the cash flows in its decision where IRR does not.


d-Considers the timing of the cash flows where the Internal Rate of Return does not.


e-Assumes a more realistic reinvestment rate assumption than IRR.
Business
1 answer:
Leno4ka [110]3 years ago
4 0
A because it’s right idkk o think it’s right I honestly guessed
You might be interested in
LO 1.1Carlita believes an important part of the planning process for managers is being sure to position the company to achieve i
irga5000 [103]

Answer:

<u>yes</u>, she is correct.

Explanation:

Company positioning can be defined as the place a company occupies in the market, as is its identity in relation to competitors and consumers. It is correct to say that strong brand positioning ensures several strategic and financial advantages for a company, for example, increases the perception and recognition of consumers, creating an image of value and reliability in the market.

Therefore a well positioned company depends on the organization of structured processes, which will promote subsidies for the correct decision making, which is an aggregate part and integrated in the area of ​​managerial accounting.

There are several tools in managerial accounting that help in the decision making process, because there is the use of appropriate reports at each stage of the organizational process, which gives the possibility to plan, control and evaluate. Accounting tools allow you to analyze a past period and correctly project present decisions by measuring the performance of financial decisions and their impacts on the business. Managerial accounting also offers the analysis of standards, relevant to ascertain and solve problems encountered in a process.

6 0
3 years ago
Ware Co. produces and sells motorcycle parts. On the first day of its fiscal year, Ware issued $35,000,000 of five-year, 12% bon
nlexa [21]

Answer:

Cash proceeds is $37,702,607.23  

First premium amortization $214,869.64

Second premium amortization is $225,613.12

First year interest expense is $ 3,759,517.24  

Explanation:

The amount of cash proceeds from the bond issue is the pv of the bond using the pv formula,=-pv(rate,nper,pmt,fv)

rate is 10% yield to maturity divided 2 since interest is semi-annual i.e 5%

nper is 5 years multiplied by 2=10

pmt is the semi-annual interest payable by the bond i.e $35,000,000*12%*6/12=$2,100,000

fv is the face value of the bond at $35,000,000

=-pv(5%,10,2100000,35000000)

pv=$37,702,607.23  

The amount of premium to be amortized in first semi-annual interest payment:

Interest expense=$$37,702,607.23*10%/2=$1,885,130.36  

coupon interest=$35,000,000*12%/2=$2,100,000

Premium amortized=$2,100,000-$1,885,130.36  

premium amortized=$214,869.64  

The amount of premium to be amortized in second semi-annual interest payment:

interest expense=($37,702,607.23+$2,100,000-$1,885,130.36)*10%/2

                           =$1,874,386.88  

Premium amortized=$2,100,000-$1,874,386.88

premium amortized=$225613.12

Bond expense for the first payment= 37,702,607.23*10%/2  

                                                           =$1,885,130.362

Bond expense for the first payment=  37,487,737.59  *10%/2  

                                                           =$ 1,874,386.88  

First year bond interest expense= 1,874,386.88+1,885,130.362  

                                                      =$ 3,759,517.24  

                                                     

Find attached schedule in addition

Download xlsx
4 0
4 years ago
Help! Which tasks commonly are performed in Management and Entrepreneurship jobs? Check all that apply.
quester [9]

Hello There! The Answer to this problem is: B, C, E, G

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Your job pays you only once a year for all the work you did over the previous 12 months. Today, December 31, you just received y
prohojiy [21]

Answer:

The money will you have on the date of your retirement 45 years from today is $4,465,480.95

Explanation:

In order to calculate the money that you will have on the date of your retirement 45 years from today we would have to calculate the following formula:

money that you will have on the date of your retirement 45 years from today=PV(1+r)∧n

To calculate the PV first we need to calculate the deposit amount as follows:

deposit=5%*($57,000+($57,000*6%)

deposit=$3,021

Hence, PV would be calculated as follows:

PV=$3,021*(1-(1+6%/1+10%)∧45/10%-6%

PV=$3,021*1-(0.9636363636)∧45/10%-6%

PV=$3,021*0.81116038/0.04

PV=$61,262.88

Therefore, money that you will have on the date of your retirement 45 years from today=$61,262.88*(1+10%)45

Therefore, money that you will have on the date of your retirement 45 years from today=$4,465,480.95

The money will you have on the date of your retirement 45 years from today is $4,465,480.95

5 0
3 years ago
Plum Corporation began the month of May with $1,400,000 of current assets, a current ratio of 1.90:1, and an acid-test ratio of
matrenka [14]

Answer:

Plum Corporation

(1) current ratio = Current assets/current liabilities

(2) acid-test ratio = (Current asset -Inventory)/Current liabilities

(3) working capital = Current assets minus Current liabilities

(4) acid-test assets = quick assets

May 2 Purchased $75,000 of merchandise inventory on credit.

Current Assets:   $1,400,000 + $75,000 = $1,475,000

Current Liabilities: $737,000 + $75,000 = $812,000

Inventory: $147,000 +$75,000 = $222,000

(1) current ratio = $1,475,000/$812,000

= 1.82:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,475,000 - $222,000/$812,000

= 1.54:1

(3) working capital = Current Assets - Current Liabilities

= $1,475,000 - $812,000

= $663,000

May 8 Sold merchandise inventory that cost $55,000 for $150,000 cash.

Current Assets: $1,475,000 -55,000 + 150,000 = $1,570,000

Current Liabilities: $812,000

Inventory: $222,000 - 55,000 = $167,000

Quick Assets = $1,570,000 - 167,000 = $1,403,000

(1) current ratio = $1,570,000/$812,000

= 1.93

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,403,000/$812,000

= 1.73

(3) working capital = $1,570,000 - $812,000

= $758,000

May 10 Collected $26,000 cash on an account receivable.

Current Assets: $1,570,000 ($26,000 - $26,000) = $1,570,000

Current Liabilities: $812,000

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,570,000 - 167,000 = $1,403,000

(1) current ratio = $1,570,000/$812,000

= 1.93

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,403,000/$812,000

= 1.73

(3) working capital = $1,570,000 - $812,000

= $758,000

May 15 Paid $29,500 cash to settle an account payable.

Current Assets: $1,570,000 - $29,500 = $1,540,500

Current Liabilities: $812,000 - $29,500 = $782,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,540,500 - 167,000 = $1,373,500

(1) current ratio = $1,540,500/$782,500

= 1.97:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,373,500/$782,500

= 1.76:1

(3) working capital = $1,540,500 - $782,500

= $758,000

May 17 Wrote off a $5,000 bad debt against the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account.

Current Assets: $1,540,500 - $5,000 = $1,535,500

Current Liabilities: $782,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,535,500 - 167,000 = $1,368,500

(1) current ratio = $1,535,500/$782,500

= 1.96:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,535,500/$782,500

= $1.96:1

(3) working capital = $1,535,500 - $782,500

=$753,000

May 22 Declared a $1 per share cash dividend on its 69,000 shares of outstanding common stock.

Current Assets: $1,535,500

Current Liabilities: $782,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,535,500 - 167,000 = $1,368,500

(1) current ratio = $1,535,500/$782,500

= 1.96:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,535,500/$782,500

= $1.96:1

(3) working capital = $1,535,500 - $782,500

=$753,000

May 26 Paid the dividend declared on May 22.

Current Assets: $1,535,500 -$69,000 = $1,466,500

Current Liabilities: $782,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,466,500 - 167,000 = $1,299,500

(1) current ratio = $1,466,500/$782,500

= 1.87:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,299,500/$782,500

= 1.66:1

(3) working capital = $1,466,500 - $782,500

= $684,000

May 27 Borrowed $120,000 cash by giving the bank a 30-day, 10% note.

Current Assets: $1,466,500 + $120,000 = $1,586,500

Current Liabilities: $782,500 + $120,000 = $902,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,586,500 - 167,000 = $1,419,500

(1) current ratio = $1,586,500/$902,500

= 1.76

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,419,500/$902,500

= 1.57

(3) working capital = $1,586,500 - $902,500

= $684,000

May 28 Borrowed $135,000 cash by signing a long-term secured note.

Current Assets: $1,586,500 + $135,000= $1,721,500

Current Liabilities: $902,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,721,500 - 167,000 = $1,554,500

(1) current ratio = $1,721,500/$902,500

= 1.91:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,554,500/$902,500

= 1.72

(3) working capital = $1,721,500 - $902,500

= $819,000

May 29 Used the $255,000 cash proceeds from the notes to buy new machinery.

Current Assets:  $1,721,500 - $255,000 = $1,466,500

Current Liabilities: $902,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,466,500 - 167,000 = $1,299,500

(1) current ratio = $1,466,500/$902,500

= 1.62:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,299,500/$902,500

= 1.44:1

(3) working capital = $1,466,500 - $902,500

= $564,000

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

May 1, Current Assets = $1,400,000

Ratio of current assets to current liabilities = 1.90:1

Acid -test ratio = 1.70:1

Therefore, current liabilities = $1,400,000/1.9 = $737,000

Current Assets minus Inventory/$737,000 = 1.7

Therefore, current assets minus inventory = $737,000 * 1.7 = 1,253,000

Inventory = Current Assets - (Current assets -inventory)

= $1,400,000 - $1,253,000

= $147,000

3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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