Is PB>PY? yes or no

Mathematics

2 answers:

Nadusha1986 [10]2 years ago

8 0

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

White raven [17]2 years ago

6 0

Answer: I believe so, the hypotenuse of the PAB face is longer than the height of the face, therefore, PB>PY

Step-by-step explanation:

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Of my 135 students, 20% have cowboy boots. How many students wear cowboy boots?

Alekssandra [29.7K]

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2 years ago

Explain why each of the following integrals is improper. (a) 4 x x − 3 dx 3 Since the integral has an infinite interval of integ

erma4kov [3.2K]

Answer:

Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

Step-by-step explanation:

Considering a

$\int\limits^4_3 {\frac{x}{x- 3} } \, dx$

Looking at this we that at x = 3 this integral will be infinitely discontinuous

Considering b

$\int\limits^{\infty}_0 {\frac{1}{1 + x^3} } \, dx$

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between $0 \ and \ \infty$ which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral

Considering c

$\int\limits^{\infty}_{- \infty} {x^2 e^{-x^2}} \, dx$

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between $-\infty \ and \ \infty$ which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral

Considering d

$\int\limits^{\frac{\pi}{4} }_0 {cot (x)} \, dx$

Looking at the integral we see that at x = 0 cot (0) will be infinity hence the integral has an infinite discontinuity , so it is a Type 2 improper integral

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2 years ago

What is the simplified form of (2 X 102)2 in standard notation? Do not use commas in your answer. (HAS TO BE A NUMBER)

Oxana [17]

Answer:

40000

Step-by-step explanation:

$(2 \times {10}^{2} )^{2} \\ = {2}^{2} \times {10}^{2 \times 2} \\ = 4 \times {10}^{4} \\ = 40000$