<span>You are given an annual dividend of $2.10 for the fifteen years that you plan on holding it. Also, after 15 years, you are given to sell the stock for $32.25. You are asked to find the present value of a share for this company if you want a 10% return. You have to mind that the future stock for 15 years is $32.25. You are not only going to mind the present value of the annuity at $2.10 but also the $32.25.
With the interest of r = 10% and number of years of n = 15, we get
PVIFA = 7.6061.
For annuity we have,
$2.10 * 7.60608 = $15.973
For $32.35 with r = 10% and n = 15
PVIF = 0.239392
Thus for the present value of selling price,
$32.25 * 0.239392 = $7.720
Thus the present value of the share
P = $15.973 + $7.720
P = $23.693
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The calculated profit per unit for base-case, worst-case is, and best-case for the management of Brinkley corporation is:
<h3>The Profit per unit for base-case:</h3>
45 - 1 1- 24 - 3 = $7
<h3>Profit per unit for worst case:</h3>
45 - 12 - 25 - 3 = $3 per unit
<h3>Profit per unit for best case:</h3>
45 - 10 - 20 - 3 = 12$ per unit
b. The mean profit per unit is given as $7.05
c. The reason the simulation approach is preferable is due to the fact that it can help to determine the probability of profit as a particular amount, unlike the what-if scenario analysis.
It can also create different scenarios for possible resources.
d. The probability of the fact that the profit per unit woul be less than 5 is 9%
Read more on risk analysis here: brainly.com/question/6955504
Answer:
None of the fixed costs are avoidable. Therefore the company now loses all the fixed costs and the positive contribution margin.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Wood Aluminum Hard Rubber
Total Sales $65000
Variable expenses (58000)
Contribution margin 7000
Fixed expenses (22000)
Net income (loss) (15000)
Effect on income= -22,000 - 7,000= -29,000
None of the fixed costs are avoidable. Therefore the company now loses all the fixed costs and the positive contribution margin.
Answer:
Year 1 : $20000
Year 2 : $460000
Explanation:
Year 1 calculation:
120000-20000/50000*10000 =$20000
Year 2 calculation:
120000-20000/50000*23000=$46000
Answer:
The answer is 7.65%
Explanation:
The cost of capital is equal to the cost of debt in this example as it involves a debt instrument. The formula for the cost of debt is as follows:
(Interest Expense x (1 – Tax Rate) ÷ (Amount of Debt – Debt Acquisition Fees + Premium on Debt – Discount on Debt)
In the example, the given values are the following:
Interest Expense = 7% x $1,000 = $70 (no tax rate was provided)
Amount of debt = $1,000 (face value of the bond)
Debt acquisition fee = $15
Discount on debt = $70 ($1,000 face value vs. the $930 proceeds of the bond, the bond was issued at a discount)
Solution:
$70 ÷ ($1,000 - $15 - $70) = 7.65% cost of capital (cost of debt)