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Ghella [55]
3 years ago
10

A company had a beginning balance in retained earnings of $430,000. It had net income of $60,000 and paid out cash dividends of

$56,250 in the current period. The ending balance in retained earnings equals: Multiple Choice $546,250. $426,250. $116,250. $433,750. $490,000. g
Business
1 answer:
snow_lady [41]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Ending retained earning will be $433750

Explanation:

We have given beginning balance = $430000

Net income = $60000

Dividend paid = $56250

We have to find the ending balance

We know that ending retained earning is given by

Ending retained earning = beginning retained earning + net income - dividend paid

So Ending retained earning = $430000+$60000-$56250 = $433750

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Kevin has $20 to spend on summer clothes. He is looking at shirts, shorts, and flip-flops. Shirts are $10, shorts are $15, and f
weeeeeb [17]

Answer:

Kevin has analyzed the situation well. However, he should also consider the fact that he saved $10 by only purchasing the shirt.

Opportunity cost is the cost of the forgone alternative. Out of the 3 choices, he only purchased 1 of the choices, the opportunity cost are the other two choices. However, he is still capable of buying the flip-flops costing $10 but he chose not to do so. He should consider it as a savings aside from it being a lost opportunity.

4 0
3 years ago
Which statements best explains how globalization offers an advantage to businesses
Marrrta [24]

Answer:

Hello here's the answer!

Explanation:

A

C

D

E

your welcome! Brainliest if you liked the answer!

6 0
3 years ago
Refer to Table 16-2. What is the concentration ratio for Industry M? a. about 52% b. about 22% c. about 96% d. about 40%
Harlamova29_29 [7]

The concentration ratio for Industry M is 52%.

The concentration ratio of industry M can be determined by adding the the ratio of the output to the total output of  each of the six firms together.

  • Ratio of firm 1's output to total output = 22,987 / 198,400 = 0.11586 = 11.59%
  • Ratio of firm 2's output to total output = 21,444 / 198,400 =  0.1081 = 10.81%
  • Ratio of firm 3's output to total output = 18,787 / 198,400 = 0.0947 = 9.47%
  • Ratio of firm 4's output to total output = 16,454 / 198,400 = 0.0829 = 8.29%
  • Ratio of firm 5's output to total output = 12,890 / 198,400 = 0.065 = 6.5%
  • Ratio of firm 6's output to total output = 22,987 / 198,400 = 0.0506 = 5.06%

Sum of the percentages = 51.72%

Please find attached a table used to answer the question. A similar question was answered here: brainly.com/question/14903886

3 0
3 years ago
Cambridge Co. uses the allowance method. During January 2019, Cambridge writes off a $640 customer account balance when it becom
julia-pushkina [17]

Answer:

A. not affect expenses in 2019.

Explanation:

Using the allowance method, when the amount is written off , the account receivable account is credited whereas the allowance for doubtful debts is debited

Moreover, it does not affect the income statement as there is no expenses incurred or no revenue earned is recorded

So, in this case, there is no affect on expenses account

8 0
3 years ago
LaTanya Corporation is planning to issue bonds with a face value of $100,000 and a coupon rate of 8 percent. The bonds mature in
kkurt [141]

Answer:

Case A:$100,000

Case B:$111,164.76

Case C:$94,967.05

Explanation:

The issue price of the bond can be computed using the excel pv formula stated below:

=-pv(rate,nper,pmt,fv)

Case A:

Rate is the market interest rate of 8%

nper is the number of coupon interest payable by the bond which is 7

pmt is the annual coupon interest of $8,000 (8%*$100,000)

fv is the face value of $100,000

=-pv(8%,7,8000,100000)=$100,000

Case B:

Rate is the market interest rate of 6%

nper is the number of coupon interest payable by the bond which is 7

pmt is the annual coupon interest of $8,000 (8%*$100,000)

fv is the face value of $100,000

=-pv(6%,7,8000,100000)=$111,164.76  

Case C:

Rate is the market interest rate of 9%

nper is the number of coupon interest payable by the bond which is 7

pmt is the annual coupon interest of $8,000 (8%*$100,000)

fv is the face value of $100,000

=-pv(9%,7,8000,100000)=$94,967.05  

 

6 0
3 years ago
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