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prohojiy [21]
3 years ago
14

Alyssa said that 6/8 and 9/12 are not equivalent because there's no whole number you can multiply both parts of 6/8 by to get 9/

12. Is she correct? Explain.
Mathematics
2 answers:
Alecsey [184]3 years ago
7 0
<h2>Answer:</h2>

           No , she is not correct.

<h2>Step-by-step explanation:</h2>

We are given two fractions as:

                          6/8 and 9/12.

Now when we multiply the numerator and denominator of 6/8 by 3 we have:

\dfrac{6}{8}\times \dfrac{3}{3}=\dfrac{18}{24}

and when we multiply the numerator and denominator of 9/12 by 2 we have:

\dfrac{9}{12}\times \dfrac{2}{2}=\dfrac{18}{24}

Hence, we get that both the fractions are equivalent.

Since by multiplying the numerator and denominator of both the fractions by some whole number we get that the two fractions are equal.

luda_lava [24]3 years ago
5 0
No. 6/8=9/12
by multiplying the denominators you get the common denominator of 72
then multiply each numerator by the number of the opposite denominator
8x12=96
6x12=72
9x8=72
Therefore, 72/96=72/96
                   (6/8   = 9/12)
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Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this problem, we need to multiply add 15% of 4,000 back to 4,000.

First, change 15% into a decimal:

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