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umka2103 [35]
3 years ago
10

For a perfectly competitive firm that does not shut down, the supply curve is a. the portion of the marginal cost curve at or ab

ove its average variable cost curve. b. the portion of the marginal revenue curve above its marginal cost curve. c. the portion of the marginal cost curve above its average cost curve. d. equal to its average variable cost curve. e. the same as the demand curve that the firm faces.
Business
2 answers:
Musya8 [376]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The correct answer is   A)

For a perfectly competitive firm that does not shut down, the supply curve is the portion of the marginal cost curve at or above its average variable cost curve.

Explanation:

For a perfectly competitive firm, the <em>marginal cost curve</em> is similar to the firm’s <em>supply curve</em> starting from the minimum point on the average variable cost curve.

To understand why this perhaps surprising insight holds true, first think about what the supply curve means.

A firm checks the market price and then looks at its supply curve to decide what quantity to produce.

Now, think about what it means to say that a firm will maximize its profits by producing at the quantity where P = MC. This rule means that the firm checks the market price, and then looks at its marginal cost to decide what quantity to produce—and ensures that the price is greater than the minimum average variable cost.

In other words, the marginal cost curve above the minimum point on the average variable cost curve becomes the firm’s supply curve.

Cheers!

mylen [45]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Option "C" is correct.

Explanation:

This occurs when the portion of the marginal cost curve is above its average cost curve.

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How do large corporations benefit from the presence of small businesses?
m_a_m_a [10]

I would choose D.  By outsourcing certain processes to small businesses

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Ferris Corporation makes a powdered rug shampoo in two sequential departments, Compounding and Drying. Materials are added at th
masha68 [24]

Answer:

Materials = 44,000

Conversion = 40,800

Explanation:

<em>Step 1 Determine the Number of Closing Work In Process Units</em>

Closing Work In Process Units = Opening Work In Process Units + Units started in process - Units transferred out

                                                   = 6,000 + 38,000 - 36,000

                                                   = 8,000

<em>Step 2 Determine the equivalent units for March 2019</em>

<u>Materials :</u>

<em>Note : Materials are added at the be-ginning of the process, therefore Units Transferred Out and Closing Work In Process are 100% complete in terms of materials</em>

Closing Work In Process Units - 100% =  8,000

Units transferred out - 100%                 = 36,000

Total equivalent units                           = 44,000

<u>Conversion :</u>

<em>Note : Ending work-in-process was 60% processed, therefore 60% completed in terms of conversion costs</em>

Closing Work In Process Units - 60%  =  4,800

Units transferred out - 100%                 = 36,000

Total equivalent units                           = 40,800

7 0
3 years ago
The budget for the month of May was for 11,200 units at a direct materials cost of $19 per unit. Direct labor was budgeted at 28
rjkz [21]

Answer:

Direct labor price(rate) variance = $1,675  (unfavorable)

Direct labor efficiency variance = 0

Explanation:

As per the data given in the question,

Number of units = 11,200

cost = $19 per unit

Labor budgeted = at 28 minutes per unit

Total budget = $100,800

Actual output = 8,900 units

Direct material expense = $137,500

Direct labor expense = $81,775

As per the following formula,

Direct labor price variance = (Actual price - Standard price) × Actual hour

= ($81,775 ÷ 8900 × 2 - $100,800 ÷ 11,200 × 2) × 8,900 ÷ 2

= $1,675  (unfavorable)

Direct labor efficiency variance = (Actual hour - Standard hour) × Standard price

= (8,900 × 28 ÷ 60 - 8,900 × 28 ÷ 60 ) × $100,800 ÷ 11,200 × 2

= 0

5 0
3 years ago
Laura smiles as her employees file into the meeting room of the small vet clinic for their weekly staff meeting. Laura has owned
zaharov [31]

Answer:

Adjourning

Explanation:

The adjourning is the stage where the team would be disperse when the project is finished

As in the given situation, since Laura's team has completed the project and they are moved to the other responsibilities

So as per the given situation, the team development represent the adjourning stage

hence, the same is relevant and considered too.

5 0
3 years ago
Cusic Industries had the following operating results for 2019: sales = $34,621; cost of goods sold = $24,359; depreciation expen
Stolb23 [73]

Answer:

a. $1,132.50

b. $9,884.50

c. $10,586

d.1 $2,725

d.2 - $4,363.50

Explanation:

a. The computation of the net income is shown below:

= Sales - cost of good sold - depreciation expense - interest expense - income tax expense

= $34,621 - $24,359 - $6,027 - $2,275 - 377.50

= $1,132.50

The income tax expense

= ($34,621 - $24,359 - $6,027 - $2,275) × 25%

= $377.50

b. The operating cash flow is shown below:

= EBIT + Depreciation - Income tax expense

where,

EBIT =  Sales - cost of good sold - depreciation expense

       =  $34,621 - $24,359 - $6,027

       =  $4,235

And all other items would remain same

Now put these values to the above formula

So, the value would equal to

= $4,235 + $6,027- $377.50

= $9,884.50

c. Computation of the cash flow from assets for 2019 is shown below:

= Operating cash flow - net capital spending - changes in working capital

where, net capital capital = ending fixed assets - beginning fixed assets + depreciation

= $24,529 -  $19,970 + $6,027

= $10,586

Changes in working capital = (ending balance of current assets - ending balance of  current liabilities) - (beginning balance of current assets - beginning balance of  current liabilities)

= ($8,702 - $4,700) - ($7,075 - $4,010)

= $4,002 - $3,065

= $937

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to

= $9,884.50 - $10,586 - $937

= - $1,638.50

d.1 The computation of the cash flow to creditors is shown below:

= Interest expense - ending balance of long term debt + beginning balance of long term debt

= $2,725 - 0 + 0

= $2,725

d.2 The computation of the cash flow to stockholder is shown below:

= Cash flow from asset - cash flow to creditors

=  - $1,638.50 -  $2,725

= - $4,363.50

6 0
3 years ago
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