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Hitman42 [59]
3 years ago
12

The Groom company has 50,000 shares of $10 par value common stock outstanding when it declares a dividend of $1 per share. What

would be the journal entry for the declaration of the cash dividends? Select one:
a. Debit: Dividends Payable - Common Stock 50,000 Credit: Cash 50,000
b. Debit: Cash Dividends 50,000 Credit: Dividends Payable - Common Stock 50,000
c. Debit: Cash 50,000 Credit: Cash Dividends 50,000
d. Debit: Cash Dividends 50,000 Credit: Cash 50,000
Business
1 answer:
laiz [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

B) Debit: Cash Dividends 50,000 Credit: Dividends Payable - Common Stock 50,000

Explanation:

At the time of declaration of dividends the proper journal entry should be:

  • Dr Retained Earnings 50,000
  • Cr Dividends Payable - Common Stock 50,000

You can use the Cash Dividends account, which is a temporary account, although it's not the best option. This account is used only when companies have not been making a profit before (retained earnings = 0), or for new companies.  

Since no payment is done, the cash account is not affected (eliminating options A, C and D).

Dividends Payable is a liability account and since it increases, it should be debited.

Cash Dividends is a temporary equity account that is debited once the company declares the dividend distribution.

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3 years ago
Regarding organizational buying, the people who have the power to select or approve the supplier- especially for larger purchase
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8 0
3 years ago
The balance sheet of Subsidiary shows assets of $86,400 and liabilities of $15,000. The fair value of the assets is $90,000 and
Andrews [41]

Answer:

b. $20,000

Explanation:

Goodwill = Investment in Subsidiary - (Asset With book value - Liability with book value) - (Fair value of Asset - Book value of Asset)

Goodwill = $95,000 - ($86,400 - $15,000) - ($90,000 - $86,400)

Goodwill = $95,000 - $71,400 - $3,600

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So, parent should record goodwill on this purchase of $20,000

8 0
3 years ago
The YTM on a 2 year zero coupon bond is 5% and the YTM on a 1 year zero coupon bond is 3%. What does the no-arbitrage condition
tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

<em>$111.11 or 111.11% of face value</em>

Explanation:

Assuming the face value of $100 for all bonds (without loss of generality)

If the two year coupon bond is repackaged as a one year zero coupon bond paying $12 after one year and another two year bond paying $112 after 2 years, the price of the two zero coupon bonds are given as

Price of one year Zero coupon bond = 12/1.05 = $11.43 (one year ZCB has YTM of 5%)

Price of two year Zero coupon bond = 112/1.06^2 = $99.68 (two year ZCB has YTM of 6%)

So, one can sell the repackaged bonds at a price = $11.43+ $99.68 = $111.11 or 111.11% of face value

7 0
3 years ago
Simone has worked as an editorial assistant at a magazine publisher for the last six months. Her boss is impressed with her dedi
pochemuha

Answer:

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Therefore this situation represents the job enlargement

5 0
4 years ago
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