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sergey [27]
3 years ago
12

What’s the ratio for 40 and 64

Mathematics
1 answer:
NARA [144]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

5/8, 5:8, or 5 to 8

Step-by-step explanation:

you have to simplify the ratio so you have to figure out what 40 and 64 have in common. tho right away you can assume that they both have 2 in common bcz they are both even so you can divide them both by two and get 20/32, and then you can do it again bcz they are both even again and get 10/16, and then you can do it again bcz they are also both even and get 5/8. now 5 is a prime number so you cant divide it any further so you stop it there. and i put three answers bcz there are three ways to write a ratio

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I need help with this please.
user100 [1]

Answer:

the slope is 60

Step-by-step explanation:

the slope is the number multiplying the x value, or t in this case.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What's the ratio as a fraction in simplest for. 15:6
stira [4]
Hey there,
15 : 6
It can be simplified by dividing both numbers by 3
15 : 6
5 : 2

Hope this helps :))

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4 0
4 years ago
The difference between three times a number and seven is twenty. What is the number?
Mama L [17]

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

(9*3) = 27 which is 20 more than 7

6 0
3 years ago
Simplify the expression by combining like terms. 16+8a−3a+6b−9
Svetradugi [14.3K]
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4 0
3 years ago
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Use the fact that the mean of a geometric distribution is μ= 1 p and the variance is σ2= q p2. A daily number lottery chooses th
butalik [34]

Answer:

a). The mean = 1000

     The variance = 999,000

     The standard deviation = 999.4999

b). 1000 times , loss

Step-by-step explanation:

The mean of geometric distribution is given as , $\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

And the variance is given by, $\sigma ^2=\frac{q}{p^2}$

Given : $p=\frac{1}{1000}$

             = 0.001

The formulae of mean and variance are :

$\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

$\sigma ^2=\frac{q}{p^2}$

$\sigma ^2=\frac{1-p}{p^2}$

a). Mean =   $\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

              = $\mu = \frac{1}{0.001}$

              = 1000

  Variance =   $\sigma ^2=\frac{1-p}{p^2}$

                  = $\sigma ^2=\frac{1-0.001}{0.001^2}$

                           = 999,000

   The standard deviation is determined by the root of the variance.

    $\sigma = \sqrt{\sigma^2}$

        = $\sqrt{999,000}$ = 999.4999

b). We expect to have play lottery 1000  times to win, because the mean in part (a) is 1000.

When we win the profit is 500 - 1 = 499

When we lose, the profit is -1

Expected value of the mean μ is the summation of a product of each of the possibility x with the probability P(x).

$\mu=\Sigma\ x\ P(x)= 499 \times 0.001+(-1) \times (1-0.001)$

  = $ 0.50

Since the answer is negative, we are expected to make a loss.

4 0
3 years ago
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