Production volume variance is Unfavorable and Fixed overhead spending (budget) variance is favorable.
<u>Explanation:</u>
The formula for fixed budget variance as follows
The Fixed overhead budget Variance = Budgeted Fixed Overhead minus Actual Fixed overhead
= $4000 minus $3800 = $200 Favorable
Fixed overhead spending (budget) variance is favorable.
The formula for Production Volume Variance is as follows:
The Production Volume Variance = Applied Fixed Overhead minus Budgeted Fixed Overhead
= ($4 into 900) minus $4000 = $3600 minus 4000 = $400 Unfavorable
Therefore, Production volume variance is Unfavorable.
Answer: $22,000 and $105,000 respectively.
Explanation:
When the bank loans out all of its remaining excess reserves as a checkable deposit, and has a check cleared against it for that amount, its reserves and checkable deposits will now be respectively $22,000 & $105,000.
Answer:
a. The factor distribution of income describes the relationship between
3. capital and total income
b. The factor market and factor prices
1. allocation of income.
Explanation:
In economics, income distribution is defined as how a nation's total GDP is distributed amongst its population. On the other-hand, The factor distribution of income is the division of total income among labor, land, and capital. <em>Factor prices, which are set in factor markets, helps in the determination of the factor distribution of income.</em>
Answer:
1) The monthly payments if the mortgage is 30 years will be $2,270
2)The monthly payments if the mortgage is 15 years will be $3,267
Explanation:
The house is worth 500,000, John pays 100,000 down payment which means that 400,000 payment is left. We need to find out that if the present value of the payment is 400,000 then what will the monthly payments be for 30,000 in order to have a present value of 400,000.
The Present value is 400,000, the interest rate is 5.5% but because the payments are monthly we will divide it by 12 (5.5/12=0.458). The Number of compounding periods will be the number of months in 30 years so N = 30*12=360. The future value is 0 as there is no lump sum payment at the end.
We input the following information in a financial calculator in order to find the the payment.
PV= 400,000
FV=0
N=360
I=0.458
Compute PMT=2,270
Now in order to find the payments for a 15 year mortgage we will replace n=360 with n=15*12= 180.
PV= 400,000
FV=0
N=180
I=0.458
Compute PMT=3,267
Answer:
$400,000
Explanation:
Since at December 31, Year 5, Tedd's tax advisor believed that an unfavorable outcome was <u>probable</u>. And a <u>reasonable estimate </u>of additional taxes was $400,000 but could be as much as $600,000.
Although after the Year 5 financial statements were issued, Tedd received and accepted an IRS settlement offer of $450,000.
Tedd should have included an amount of $400,000 as accrued liability in its December 31, Year 5 balance sheet
The reason is that according to the International Financial Reporting Standards, a PROVISION must be made as long as the conditions below were obtainable at year end.
- Existing Condition (which in this case is the tax dispute with the IRS)
- Probable Cash Outflow (which Tedd's Tax adviser confirmed)
- Reliable Estimate of Outflow ( which the scenario stated ''A reasonable estimate of additional taxes was $400,000'')
Hence, such 'reasonable estimate is the appropriate amount for inclusion in the financial statements.