To get 4% of 800 you times 800 by 4 and divide it by 100. Once you have that amount you add it to 800 to find the amount you will have in your bank the first year.
To get the next year's amount you then get 4% of 832(because after the first year you have more than $800) and then add the 4% to 832, that is the answer for the second year.
To find the third year's amount you get 4% of the new amount (last year's total) and add it to last year's total, that is your total for the third year.
So the first year will be:
(800x4÷100)+800
=32+800
=832
The second year will be:
832+(832x4÷100)
=832+33.28
=865.28
The third year will be:
(865.28×4÷100)+865.28
=34.61(rounded off)+865.28
=899.89
Answer:
The average rate of change from x=0 to x=1 for f(x) is 0.
Step-by-step explanation:
We are given the function
.
Now, the rate average rate of change of a function from
to
is given by
.
As, we need the rate of change from x = 0 to x = 1.
So, we will find the values of f(0) and f(1).
i.e.
i.e. f(0) = 3
and
i.e.
i.e. f(1) = 3
Thus, the rate of change from x=0 to x=1 is
i.e.
i.e. 0
Hence, the average rate of change from x=0 to x=1 for f(x) is 0.
![\begin{array}{rrrrr} 10x&-&18y&=&2\\ -5x&+&9y&=&-1 \end{array}~\hfill \implies ~\hfill \stackrel{\textit{second equation }\times 2}{ \begin{array}{rrrrr} 10x&-&18y&=&2\\ 2(-5x&+&9y&)=&2(-1) \end{array}} \\\\[-0.35em] ~\dotfill\\\\ \begin{array}{rrrrr} 10x&-&18y&=&2\\ -10x&+&18y&=&-2\\\cline{1-5} 0&+&0&=&0 \end{array}\qquad \impliedby \textit{another way of saying \underline{infinite solutions}}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Brrrrr%7D%2010x%26-%2618y%26%3D%262%5C%5C%20-5x%26%2B%269y%26%3D%26-1%20%5Cend%7Barray%7D~%5Chfill%20%5Cimplies%20~%5Chfill%20%5Cstackrel%7B%5Ctextit%7Bsecond%20equation%20%7D%5Ctimes%202%7D%7B%20%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Brrrrr%7D%2010x%26-%2618y%26%3D%262%5C%5C%202%28-5x%26%2B%269y%26%29%3D%262%28-1%29%20%5Cend%7Barray%7D%7D%20%5C%5C%5C%5C%5B-0.35em%5D%20~%5Cdotfill%5C%5C%5C%5C%20%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Brrrrr%7D%2010x%26-%2618y%26%3D%262%5C%5C%20-10x%26%2B%2618y%26%3D%26-2%5C%5C%5Ccline%7B1-5%7D%200%26%2B%260%26%3D%260%20%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cqquad%20%5Cimpliedby%20%5Ctextit%7Banother%20way%20of%20saying%20%5Cunderline%7Binfinite%20solutions%7D%7D)
if we were to solve both equations for "y", we'd get

notice, the 1st equation is really the 2nd in disguise, since both lines are just pancaked on top of each other, every point in the lines is a solution or an intersection, and since both go to infinity, well, there you have it.