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Mandarinka [93]
3 years ago
5

The Marcellus shale is:

Business
1 answer:
Over [174]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Option D is correct.

The Marcellus shale is: a major new source of gas that has become available because people developed the technological tools to recover the gas.

Explanation:

The largest natural gas-producing region in the United States, accounting for close to one-fifth of the country’s total gas production is the Marcellus shale.

This shale has emerged as one of the most cost-effective gas plays, given the high production rates of wells in addition to improving drilling efficiencies being brought about by the appropriation of technologies such as pad drilling.

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Discount Outlet has net income of $389,100, a profit margin of 2.8 percent, and a return on assets of 8.6 percent. What is the c
Ratling [72]

An efficiency ratio known as the capital intensity ratio provides valuable insight into a company's financial situation.

Capital Intensity Ratio = Total Assets/Total Revenue

Return on assets = Net income/Total Assets

Total Assets = Net income/Return on Assets= $389,100/0.086

Total Revenue = Net income/Net Profit Margin = $389,100/0.028

Capital intensity ratio = ($389,100 /0.086) / ($389,100 / 0.028) =0.33

This ratio reveals how much capital or other resources a company has to have in order to make single dollar in sales. This ratio is the inverse of the asset turnover ratio, making it simple to calculate the capital intensity ratio if you already know the asset turnover ratio. For all capital-intensive firms, we require a good or higher capital intensity ratio. A company that invests a significant amount of capital in its manufacturing process is said to be capital-intensive. E.g., Power generating facilities. A company that has made significant investments in assets to generate income has a high capital intensity ratio (CIR). A company with a low CIR is able to produce larger revenues while owning fewer assets. As a result, businesses can use this ratio to modify their capital budgeting and planning.

Learn more about Capital Intensity Ratio here

brainly.com/question/14594640

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5 0
2 years ago
The Great Fish Taco Corporation currently has fixed operating costs of $15,000​, sells its​ pre-made tacos for $6.00 per​ box, a
Makovka662 [10]

Answer: The Break-Even Point will reduce from $4,285.71 to $4,125

Explanation:

To get the Break-Even Point we can divide Fixed Assets by the Contribution margin.

The Contribution Margin is the Selling Price minus the Variable Cost.

For Scenario 1 the Break-Even Point will be,

= 15,000 / ( 6 - 2.50)

= $4,285.71

For Scenario 2 the Break-Even Point is,

= 16,500 / 6.5 -2.5

= $4,125

The Break-Even Point for Scenario 2 means that even though the higher Fixed Costs could have led to a higher Break-Even Point, the higher price contributed more than the fixed costs did and led to an ultimately lower Break-Even Point than the first Scenario.

3 0
3 years ago
we come to them who weep foolishly and sit down and cry for company, instead of imparting to them truth and health in rough elec
gtnhenbr [62]

Answer:

Emerson elaborates what is know as rough love

Explanation:

Sometimes to bring out the best in a person it is necessary to do things against his or her will, this happens a lot in cases where the parent educates the child or a close family member or friend worries for the welfare of the loved one, and is determined to taking action to change the situation and that includes applying discipline; or for example, hiding drinks from an alcoholic's son or even punishing a children for misbehave.

Emerson elaborates this in a succinct and not too apparent way, emphasizing the need for relationship with discipline.

4 0
3 years ago
What is a transferable skill ?
ser-zykov [4K]

Answer:

it's 4, a skill you can use in many different situations

8 0
2 years ago
When originally purchased, a truck costing BD 23.000 had an estimated useful life of 8 years and an estimated salvage value of B
GREYUIT [131]

Answer:

d. BD 2,500

Explanation:

Accumulated Depreciation through the end of year 4 = [ Asset's cost - Salvage Value) / Estimated Useful Life] * Years Elapsed

= [(23,000 - 3,000)/8] * 4

= BD 10,000

Depreciation in Year 3 = [Asset's cost - Salvage Value - Accumulated Depreciation] / Remaining Estimated Useful Life

Depreciation in Year 3 = [23,000 - 3,000 - 10,000] / 4

Depreciation in Year 3 = 10,000 / 4

Depreciation in Year 3 = BD 2,500

6 0
3 years ago
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