The ______ period rate of return is simply the rate of return over some arbitrary investment period.

One might infer from a debit balance in allowance for doubtful accounts that

shtirl [24]

Answer:

The answer is:

More accounts have been written off than had been estimated

Explanation:

Doubtful debt or bad debt is an expense. According to the rule of accounting, debit increases an expense while debit decreases an expense.

So the debit balance balance in allowance for doubtful accounts tells us that there is an increase in expense which means that more accounts(bad debt) have been written off.

So we can infer from the debit balance that more accounts have been written off than had been estimated

3 0

3 years ago

Fixed Overhead Spending and Volume Variances, Columnar and Formula Approaches

shutvik [7]

Answer:

Fixed Overheads Spending Variance = $5,000 Unfavorable(U).

Fixed Overheads Spending Variance = $20,000 Favorable (F).

Explanation:

Fixed Overheads Spending Variance = Actual Fixed Overheads - Budgeted Fixed Overheads

= $305,000 - $300,000

= $5,000 Unfavorable(U).

Fixed Overheads Spending Variance = Fixed Overheads at Actual Production - Budgeted Fixed Overheads

= ($5.00 × 64,000) - $300,000

= $320,000 - $300,000

= $20,000 Favorable (F)

3 0

3 years ago

2700 thousand bonds with a face value of $1000 each, are sold at 106. The entry to record the issuance is

IceJOKER [234]

Date, bonds sold at a premium

Dr Cash $28620000000

Cr Bonds payable $2,700,000,000

Cr Premium on bonds payable $1,62,000,000

Explanation:

The total face value of the bonds is $1,000 x 2700,000 bonds = $2,700,000,000

since the bonds were sold at 106, their price was =

$2,700,000,000 x 106% = $28620000000

the difference between the face value and the actual market price = $2,862,000,000 - $2,700,000,000 = $1,62,000,000 must be recorded as premium on bonds payable (increases the bonds' carrying value)

<h3>What is the difference between market value and face value?</h3>

The market value is the actual price at which the security trades on the open market, as well as the price that fluctuates when the yield reacts to changes in interest rates.

The face value is determined by the issuing company. It may be the value at which the firm redeems the shares at some point in the future, but there is no guarantee.

Learn more about date and the interest expense:

brainly.com/question/20038664

#SPJ4

7 0

2 years ago

Accounts payable: Select one: a. Are amounts owed to suppliers for products and/or services purchased on credit. b. Are long-ter

Nutka1998 [239]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": Are amounts owed to suppliers for products and/or services purchased on credit.

Explanation:

Accounts Payable is the amount of the total invoices currently awaiting payment by the company. These invoices are from suppliers of products and services that have recently been delivered. They are usually due within 15, 30 or 45 days after receiving the invoice from the vendor.

6 0

3 years ago

Suppose that Verizon Wireless has hired you as a consultant to determine what price it should set for calling services. Suppose

goldfiish [28.3K]

Answer:

The two optimal two part price that would be suggested to Verizon is Unit per Fee = $1 and Lump Sum fee or fixed fee = $99

Explanation:

Solution

For us fully maximize profit under two part price It should gives that amount of wireless service at which P = MC and and also charge Lump sum fee or fixed fee equals to the consumers surplus that consumer will have.

Now,

marginal cost= MC = 1 and P = 100 - 25Q.

Thus,

P = MC => 100 - 25Q = 1 => Q = 2

Then,

The Consumer surplus is the above area Price of line which is (iP = 1) and below is the curve of demand

Now,

P = 100, When Q = 0 The Consumer surplus = (1/2)*base*height

= (1/2)*(100 - 1)*2 = 99

Therefore, Fixed fee or The Lump Sum fee = 99

However, the Optimal two part pricing is denoted by:

The Unit per Fee = $1 and Lump Sum fee or fixed fee = $99

4 0

3 years ago