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tensa zangetsu [6.8K]
3 years ago
12

A mortgage requires you to pay $70,000 at the end of each of the next eight years. The interest rate is 8%. a. What is the prese

nt value of these payments? b.Calculate for each year the loan balance that remains outstanding, the interest payment on the loan, and the reduction in the loan balance.
Business
1 answer:
rewona [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

a. $402,264

b. Working for each year the loan balance that remains outstanding, the interest payment on the loan, and the reduction in the loan balance is made in an MS Excel file which attached with this answer. Please find it.

Explanation:

a.

Present value of these payments can be calcullated by following formula

P = r ( PV ) / 1 - ( 1 + r )^-n

P = payment per year = $70,000

r = rate per period = 8%

n = number years = 8 years

PV =  present value of all payments = ?

$70,000 = 8% x PV / 1 - ( 1 + 8% )^-8

$70,000 = 0.08 x PV / 1 - ( 1.08 )^-8

$70,000 = 0.08 x PV / 0.45973

$70,000 x 0.45973 = 0.08 x PV

$32,181 = 0.08 x PV

PV = $32,181 / 0.08

PV = 402,263.75

Download xlsx
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Big John’s manufacturing currently produces its lead product on a machine that has a variable cost of 0.32 per unit and a fixed
Greeley [361]

Answer:

The indifference point is 1,875,000 units.

Because the current machine has lower fixed costs, it has a lower cost from 0 units to 1,874,999. From 1,875,001 the new machine is more convenient,

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Current machine:

Total cost= 75,000 + 0.32x

New machine:

Total cost= 150,000 + 0.28x

<u>To find the indifference point, we need to equal the cost functions and isolate x (number of units)</u>

75,000 + 0.32x = 150,000 + 0.28x

0.04x= 75,000

x= 1,875,000

The indifference point is 1,875,000 units.

Because the current machine has lower fixed costs, it has a lower cost from 0 units to 1,874,999. From 1,875,001 the new machine is more convenient.

6 0
3 years ago
Which statement is correct?
Allisa [31]

Answer: (C)  The production of non durable consumer goods is more stable than the production of durable consumer goods over the business cycle.

Explanation:

 The consumer durability of the goods has the significant life span and the production of the non durable goods of the consumer are basically purchased for the immediate consumption over the business cycle so that is why it is more stable as compared to the production of the durable goods.

The example of the durable consumer goods are smartphones, furniture and the other household appliances. On the other hand, the non durable consumer goods are more stable as it contain daily use material like food, clothes and beverages.  

4 0
3 years ago
On March 15, a fire destroyed Blossom Company's entire retail inventory. The inventory on hand as of January 1 totaled $5300000.
Svet_ta [14]

Answer:

The value of inventory destroyed=$4,082,000

Explanation:

<em>The value of the inventory destroyed is the difference between the the cost of the total goods available for sale and the cost of goods sold</em>

The value of inventory destroyed = cost of goods available for sale - value of inventory sold

Cost of goods sold = 3540,000 - (20%×  3540,000)= 2,832,000

The cost of goods available for dale = opening inventory + purchases + freight charges

$5300000 + $1432000 +  $182000 = 6,914,000

The value of inventory destroyed = 6,914,000 - 2,832,000 = 4082000

The value of inventory destroyed=$4,082,000

7 0
3 years ago
A thief steals an ATM card and must randomly guess the correct three​-digit pin code from a 9​-key keypad. Repetition of digits
Dennis_Churaev [7]

Answer:

The thief has a 0.11% probability of hitting the pin code on the first try.

Explanation:

Simply, if the ATM card has a 3-digit code that can be repeated, and the board has 9 numbers (for example, from 1 to 9), we must start from the smallest number that could be formed with these numbers to the highest number that these numbers could also compose, which in the case would be 111 and 999. Then, 889 different numbers could be formed (it is the distance between 111 and 999), with which the possibility of hitting the key to the first attempt would be 1 in 889 times, or 1/889.

To take the probability to a percentage, we must know that 889 / 8.89 gives 100. Therefore, dividing 1 / 8.89 we will know the percentage of probabilities of hitting the key on the first attempt: 1 / 8.89 = 0.11.

This shows us that the thief has a 0.11% probability of hitting the key on the first try.

7 0
3 years ago
KTZ manufactures and distributes cutting edge hockey equipment. It has decided to streamline some of its operations so that it w
Nady [450]

Answer:

Consider the following explanations and calculations

Explanation:

part 1

a)  KTZ sold an office building for $85,000 in cash. It originally bought the office building seven

years ago for $59,000 and has taken $14,000 in depreciation.-

Ans- Bookvalue on date of sale= $59000- $ 14000= $ 45000

Profit on sale of office building= $85000- $45000= $40000

As per section 1231, out of profit of $40,000, amount of $14000, i.e till the amount of depreciation will be an ordinary income and $26000 (40000-14000) will be considered capital income.

b)

KTZ sold another machine for $6,200. It originally purchased this machine six months ago for

$9,000 and has claimed $1,230 in depreciation expense against the asset.

Ans- As the asset was held for less than one year, the provision of section 1230 will not apply. Thus, the loss will be treated as ordinary loss. The amount of ordinary loss =cost-depreciation-salesprice=9000-1230-6200= $1570

c)

KTZ sold some of its inventory for $5,000 cash. This inventory had a basis of $8,000

Ans-Section 1230 will not be applied to inventories. Thus ordinary profit of $3000 (8000-3000) will be considered.

d)

KTZ held stock in XYZ Corp., which had a value of $19,000 at the beginning of the year. That

same stock had a value of $25,230 at the end of the year.

Ans- Stock is treated as lower of market value or cost, hence no treatment, willl be shown at $19000

e)

KTZ sold a machine that it used to make computerized dies for $26,300 cash. It originally bought

the machine for $16,200 three years ago and has taken $4,000 depreciation

Ans- Bookvalue of computer- 16200-4000= $12,200

Profit= 26300- 12200= $14100

As per section 1231, out of profit of $14,100, amount of $4000, i.e till the amount of depreciation will be an ordinary income and $10100 (14100-4000) will be considered capital income.

part 2

Net section 1231 gain=26,000 + 10100= $ $36100

Ordinary gain= 14000+3000+4000= $21000

Ordinary loss= $ 1570

5 0
3 years ago
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