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Sergio [31]
3 years ago
10

If an investor's aversion to risk increased, would the risk premium on a high beta stock increase by more or less than that of a

low-beta stock? Explain.
Business
1 answer:
8_murik_8 [283]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

risk premium increases by more of the low - beta stock

A risk averse investor is an investor that avoids risk. if risk aversion increases, it means that the investor is more wary of risky investment.

Beta measures the volatility of a portfolio. the higher the volatility, the more risky the portfolio is.

risk premium measures the rate of return in excess of the risk free rate.

According to CAPM :

risk free rate + (beta x stock risk premium)

Beta is a multiplier of stock risk premium, so the higher the beta, the more there would be an increase in the stock risk premium

If a risk averse investor invests in a high beta stock, he would want extra or higher compensation for holding such a volatile stock. this extra compensation would be in the form of a higher risk premium.

Explanation:

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McConnell Corporation has bonds on the market with 12 years to maturity, a YTM of 10.0 percent, a par value of $1,000, and a cur
PolarNik [594]

Answer:

13.28%

Explanation:

The computation of the coupon rate is shown below

But before that determine the PMT

Given that

NPER = 12 × 2 = 24

RATE = 10% ÷ 2 = 5%

PV = $1,226.50

FV = $1,000;

The formula is shown below

= PMT(RATE;NPER;-PV;FV;TYPE)

After applying the above formula, the monthly payment is

= $66.41 × 2

= $132.82

Now the coupon rate is

= $132.82 ÷ $1,000

= 13.28%

3 0
2 years ago
If producing each additional unit of good x required giving up ever-increasing amounts of good y, the production possibilities c
Hatshy [7]

If producing each additional unit of good x required giving up ever-increasing amounts of good y, the production possibilities curve between x and y would be bowed outward.

The law of increasing possibility fee: As you increase the manufacturing of 1 appropriate, the opportunity fee to provide the additional precise will boom.

First, understand that opportunity price is the fee of the following-high-quality alternative when a decision is made; it's what's given up.

When the economy grows and all other matters continue to be steady, we are able to produce greater, so this will motivate a shift in the manufacturing opportunities to curve outward, or to the proper.

Learn more about production here: brainly.com/question/26460726

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5 0
1 year ago
In the forbes article, kotlikoff explains that saving and investing decisions should be guided by?
vladimir2022 [97]

In the forbes article, kotlikoff explains that saving and investing decisions should be guided by strategies that maximize expected utility.

Saving can mean a variety of things to various people. Some believe that it requires making a bank deposit. Investing in stocks or making contributions to a retirement plan are some more definitions. Conversely, according to economists, saving is the act of using less of a specific amount of resources today in order to consume more later. So, the choice to delay consumption and put that delayed consumption in an asset is what is meant by saving.

Saving is either deferred consumption or revenue that is not spent. Putting money aside in various accounts, such as a savings account, a pension account, an investment fund, or in cash, counts as a saving strategy. In order to save, expenses like recurrent charges must be reduced.

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brainly.com/question/14584624

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5 0
2 years ago
A company that manufactures and sells kitchen scrubbing sponges has significantly lower cost structures than its competition. Th
chubhunter [2.5K]

Answer:

The correct answer is “Pricing below competitors”.

Explanation:

It is given that the organization is operating with a lower cost structure as compared to its competitor and it is also enjoying the economies of scale. Since lower cost structure makes the organization capable to keep the price of its product lower as compared to its competitor. Moreover, the lower price of a commodity will attract new customers. Consequently, its sales volume will increase.

5 0
3 years ago
Assume Sarah is a cash-method, calendar-year taxpayer, and she is considering making the following cash payments related to her
Marizza181 [45]

The question is incomplete. However, it is about the calculation of after-tax cost of payment

Answer:

After-tax cost = payment*(1-0.37)

Explanation:

The after-tax cost is the net cost after the deduction of the amount of tax from the actual payment. In most cases, the value of the tax deduction is determined by multiplying the marginal tax rate with the payment. Then, the magnitude of the after-tax cost can be estimated by subtracting the payment from the tax deduction.

7 0
3 years ago
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