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4 years ago

which of the following choices describe the conversion ratio you would use to convert pounds to ounces.

Mathematics

1 answer:

Nastasia [14]4 years ago

7 0

1 pound is 16 ounces so 1:16 maybe?

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uppose that Mary's utility function is U(W) = W0.5, where W is wealth. She has an initial wealth of $100. How much of a risk

Stels [109]

Note that $U(W) = W^{0.5}$

Answer:

Mary's risk premium is $0.9375

Step-by-step explanation:

Mary's utility function, $U(W) = W^{0.5}$

Mary's initial wealth = $100

The gamble has a 50% probability of raising her wealth to $115 and a 50% probability of lowering it to $77

Expected wealth of Mary, $E_w$

$E_{w}$ = (0.5 * $115) + (0.5 * $77)

$E_{w}$ = 57.5 + 38.5

$E_{w}$ = $96

The expected value of Mary's wealth is $96

Calculate the expected utility (EU) of Mary:-

$E_u = [0.5 * U(115)] + [0.5 * U(77)]\\E_u = [0.5 * 115^{0.5}] + [0.5 * 77^{0.5}]\\E_u = 5.36 + 4.39\\E_u = \$ 9.75$

The expected utility of Mary is $9.75

Mary will be willing to pay an amount P as risk premium to avoid taking the risk, where

U(EW - P) is equal to Mary's expected utility from the risky gamble.

U(EW - P) = EU

U(94 - P) = 9.63

Square root (94 - P) = 9.63

If Mary's risk premium is P, the expected utility will be given by the formula:

$E_{u} = U(E_{w} - P)\\E_{u} = U(96 - P)\\E_u = (96 - P)^{0.5}\\(E_u)^2 = 96 - P\\ 9.75^2 = 96 - P\\95.0625 = 96 - P\\P = 96 - 95.0625\\P = 0.9375$

Mary's risk premium is $0.9375

7 0

3 years ago

DochEvi [55]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0

4 years ago

What's the sale price if the original price is 83$ and the markdown is 33%

Veronika [31]

Answer:

53.12

Step-by-step explanation:

You can do it 2 ways

1st way

83 multiplied by .33

83 is the amount and .33 is the percent

Now you have the mark downed price, so you subtract that from the original of 83

2nd way

subtract 33 from 100 because the price is 33% off

now multiply 83 by 0.64 because the .64 represents 64%

4 0

3 years ago

Select the expression that is equivalent to V+V+V+V*

Rashid [163]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The coefficient of each V is 1

So, 1V + 1V + 1V + 1V

= 4V

8 0

3 years ago

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Explain how a number line can be used to find the difference for 34-28

wariber [46]

Take a piece of paper and write a line with dashes having a number below it until 50. Then Go to 34 on your number line and then go backwards by 28. (34 - 28) the answer should be 6. The number line helps you count steps forward/backwards. :)

<3 Aleah

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers