Step-by-step explanation:
S = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 7, 8 }
n ( S ) = 8
Let A be the event of getting 4,
A = { 4 }
n ( A ) = 1
P ( A )
= n ( A ) / n ( S )
= 1 / 8
Therefore, the probability of spinning a 4 is 1 / 8.
S = { A, B, A, C, A, B }
n ( S ) = 6
Let Y be the event of getting C,
Y = { C }
n ( Y ) = 1
P ( Y )
= n ( Y ) / n ( S )
= 1 / 6
Therefore, the probability of spinning a C is 1 / 6.
<u>Answer:</u>
<u>(BEFORE YOU SUBMIT IT, PLEASE READ THE WARNING)</u>
QUESTION EIGHT: 2690
QUESTION NINE: 120
QUESTION ELEVEN: 12.5
QUESTION FOURTEEN: 24
<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>
<u>WARNING!! FOR QUESTIONS WITH INTEREST: I do not know if interest is good or bad (if you get money, or if you lose money. I counted interest as making money, but if you are sure it's not, contact me in the comments and I will solve it again! :)</u>
8.
may 3rd -> july 15th = 73 days
500*0.06 = 30
30 = how much he makes in one day (so he has 530 after 1 day)
30*73 = 2190
500 + 2190 = 2690
9.
210/7 = 30
1% for 3 years = 30
1% for 1 year = 10
100% for 1 year = 1000
2000*0.06 = 120
11.
54,000*0.08 = 4320
54,000/4320 = 12.5
14.
5000*6.26% = 312.5
7500/312.5 = 24
Answer:98
Step-by-step explanation: the total of boxes the store has is 98 boxes of tiles. This is computed by dividing 56 by 7 which is equal to 392. Then 392 will be divided by 4 which will give us 98
The best thing to do is either to find a common denominator or convert them to decimals.
I will find a common denominator.
A common denominator of 3 and 5 is 15.
You multiply the first fraction by 5
2*5= 10
This then becomes 10/15
You then multiply the second by 3.
4*3= 12
Therefore, this becomes 12/15
As the second of these fractions is larger, this means that 4/5 is larger.
The alternative method is to put them into decimals, in which case 2/3= 0.66 and 4/5= 0.8
Hope this helps :)
Answer:
24
Step-by-step explanation:
4.8×5 you have 5 candy bars that are $4.80 each so you multiply that by 5.
