Answer:
1/36
Step-by-step explanation:
A die can roll a 1,2,3,4,5,6
P (5) = number of 5's / total
= 1/6
The 2nd roll is independent so the probability is the same
P (5) = number of 5's / total
= 1/6
P(5, 5) = 1/6*1/6 = 1/36
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▹ Answer
<em>There are 8 chocolate chips in one pancake.</em>
▹ Step-by-Step Explanation
The x is labeled as Number of Pancakes.
The y is labeled as Number of Chocolate Chips
Therefore, the 1 represents the pancakes and the 8 represents the amount of chocolate chips per pancake. This would be stated as:
There are 8 chocolate chips in one pancake.
Hope this helps!
- CloutAnswers ❁
Brainliest is greatly appreciated!
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To reduce a fraction, divide the numerator and the denominator equally until they reach the simplest whole number possible.
In this case, the numerator (720) and the denominator (1080) can both be divided by 360 to get 2/3, our reduced fraction.
Answer:
all real numbers
Step-by-step explanation:
simplify each side of the inequality
26 + 6b -- already fully simplified
2(3b + 4) → 6b + 8
26 + 6b ≥ 6b + 8
subtract 6b from both sides
26 ≥ 8
since this expression is true (26 is greater than 8), then the solution is all real numbers. any value could take the place of b because in the end, it will be canceled out by itself, resulting in 26 ≥ 8
Answer:
I think it's 150
Step-by-step explanation:
(8+7) × 10 = 150
