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LenKa [72]
2 years ago
12

Create the quadratic function that contains the points (0-2), (1, 0) and (3, 10). Show all of your work for full credit.

Mathematics
1 answer:
solniwko [45]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

My graphing calculator tells me the function is

.. f(x) = x^2 +x -2

_____

Since we recognize the y-intercept as being (0, -2), we only need to find the coefficients of x and x^2.

If you want to do this by hand, you can use

.. y = ax^2 +bx -2

to write 2 equations in a and b for the (x, y) values (1, 0) and (3, 10).

.. 0 = a +b -2

.. 10 = 9a +3b -2

To solve by substitution, you can let a = 2-b, and you have

.. 10 = 9(2 -b) +3b -2

.. 6b = 6 . . . . . . . . . . . add 6b-10

.. b = 1

.. a = 2 -1 = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

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25 3/10 plus 376 77/100 pls hurry
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Answer:

402.07

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
One concern of a gambler is that she will go broke before achieving her first win. Suppose that she plays a game in which the pr
Ray Of Light [21]

Answer:

The probability that she wins exactly once before she loses her initial capital is 0.243.

Step-by-step explanation:

The gambler commences with $30, i.e. she played 3 games.

Let <em>X</em> = number of games won by the gambler.

The probability of winning a game is, <em>p</em> = 0.10.

The random variable <em>X</em> follows a Binomial distribution, with probability mass function:

P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x}(1-p)^{n-x};\ x=0, 1, 2,...

Compute the probability of exactly one winning as follows:

P(X=1)={3\choose 1}(0.10)^{1}(1-0.10)^{3-1}\\=3\times0.10\times0.81\\=0.243

Thus, the probability that she wins exactly once before she loses her initial capital is 0.243.

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3 years ago
For which pair of functions is the exponential consistently growing at a faster rate than the quadratic over the interval 0s χ&l
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3 years ago
Factor completely: x3 − x2y − xy2 + y3
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7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
1/2 divided by 37.10 do not look it up on the web thank you:)
stealth61 [152]

Answer:

\frac{5}{371}

Step-by-step explanation:

first, convert 37.10 into a fraction. it will be \frac{10}{371}. next, divide the two fractions using keep, change, flip. (keep the first fraction, change the sign into the multiplication sign, and flip the second fraction) you will get \frac{1}{2}×\frac{10}{371}=\frac{10}{742}. you need the multiply the numerator by the numerator and the denominator by the denominator. next, to simplify, divide both the numerator and denominator by 2 and you will get \frac{5}{371} :)

6 0
3 years ago
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