Answer:
Dr. Employee Benefits expense $22,700
Cr. Medical Insurance payable $13,500
Cr. Employee retirement program payable $9,200
Explanation:
The cost of fringe benefit provided to the employee of the company and any tax component attached to it is known as the employee benefit expense.
Total employee benefit expense is the sum of medical insurance and employee retirement program. As medical insurance and retirement program is payable until now so, it is recorded as a liability.
Employee benefit expense = $13,500 + $9,200 = $22,700
Answer:
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Fixed manufacturing overhead cost of $497,000, variable manufacturing overhead of $2.40 per direct labor-hour, and 70,000 direct labor-hours.
T 498:
Total direct labor-hours 80
First, we need to calculate the estimated manufacturing overhead rate for the period:
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= (497,000/70,000) + 2.4= $9.5 per direct labor hour.
Now we can allocate the overhead to Job 498:
Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base
Allocated MOH= 9.5*80= $760
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "C": Project organization.
Explanation:
Gobeli, D. and Larson, E. published in the <em>Project Management Journal</em> (1987) the <em>Relative effectiveness of different project structures</em> after their study on how projects are organized and how that organization affects the results of the team. According to them, superlative effectiveness is accomplished in project organization structures.
Answer:
a. is a list of accounts with their balances at a given time.
Explanation:
There are two columns in the trial balance, namely debit columns and columns of credit. The total amount of columns of debit and credit should always match and equaled.
The debit columns reflect assets and expenses side while earnings, stockholder equity, and liability side are listed in the credit column. It is prepared for the given period of time.
Answer:
(a) In case when Appraisal Department has excess capacity then minimum transfer will be:
($130.21 - $7.82) = $122.39
Minimum Transfer Price = $122.39
(b) In case when Appraisal Department has no excess capacity then minimum transfer price will be:
($130.21 - $7.82) + ($163 - $130.21) = $155.18
Minimum Transfer Price = $155.18
(c) No, the management should not force to charge the Home- Loan department only $150.42.
