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ioda
3 years ago
13

Which of the following lists two things that both decrease the money supply?

Business
1 answer:
zysi [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: B. raise the discount rate, make open market sales are two things that both decrease the money supply.

Explanation: If the discount rate is high, less banks are likely to borrow money from the Federal Reserve because they will be paying a higher interest rate on the borrowed funds. Open market refers to banks buying and selling different government entities in an open market.

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Acheson Corporation, which applies manufacturing overhead on the basis of machine-hours, has provided the following data for its
Ira Lisetskai [31]

Answer:

$160,637.40

Explanation:

Calculation for the applied manufacturing overhead for the year

First step is to find the Predetermined overhead rate using this formula

Predetermined overhead rate=Estimated manufacturing overhead÷Estimated machine-hours

Let plug in formula

Predetermined overhead rate=157,150÷4,520

Predetermined overhead rate= 34.77

Last step is to calculate for the Applied Manufacturing overhead for the year using this formula

Applied manufacturing overhead for the year = Actual machine-hours*Predetermined overhead rate

Let plug in the formula

Applied manufacturing overhead for the year=

4,620*34.77

Applied manufacturing overhead for the year=$160,637.40

Therefore the applied manufacturing overhead for the year is closest to:$160,637.40

7 0
3 years ago
Mortgages, loans taken to purchase a property, involve regular payments at fixed intervals and are treated as reverse annuities.
storchak [24]

Answer:

Ans. your monthly payment, for 30 years is $9,257.51 if you buy a property worth $1,000,000 and you make a down payment of $100,000

Explanation:

Hi, first we have to change the fixed rate in terms of an effective monthly rate, which is 1% effective monthly (12% nominal interest/12 =1% effective monthly). After that, take into account that the property is going to be paid in 30 years, but since the payments are going to be made in a montlhly basis, we have to turn years into months (30 years * 12 = 360 months).

After all that is done, all we have to do is to solve the following equiation for "A".

PresentValue=\frac{A((1+r)^{n} -1)}{r(1+r)^{n} }

Where:

A= Annuity or monthly payment

r= Rate (effective monthly, in our case)

n= Periods to pay (360 months)

Everything should look like this.

900,000=\frac{A((1+0.01)^{360} -1}{0.01(1+0.0.1)^{360} }

900,000=A(97.2183311)

\frac{900,000}{97.2183311} =A

A=9,257.51

Best of luck.

6 0
3 years ago
Greg had selected 8 intervals total to service. He logged in on time for each interval, but ended up logging out 5
inysia [295]

Answer:

The resulting CA percentage for the week to the nearest number is 94%

Explanation:  

CA refers to Commitment Adherence.

Commitment Adherence (CA) is a way to calculate the reliability of an employee in relation to how much time they put into their work.

Put differently, it is a mathematical comparison between how much time you stated that you were going to work versus the actual amount worked. This concept is prevalent with people who use clock-in and clock-out system to measure productivity.

Step 1

The formula for calculating Commitment Adherence (CA) is:

(Serviced Minutes - Excused Non-Serviced Minutes) / (Posted Minutes + Released Minutes)

When you log out at about 5 minutes early it translates to 83% because each interval is 30 minutes. So 23/30 = 83%

Step 2

There are 8 intervals. 5 of them are 100% each. Thus total intervals for the week equal

(5*100%)+(3*83%) =

7.49 *30 = 224.7

Total number of intervals selected =

8*30 = 240

Therefore commitment adherence = 224.7/240

= 0.94%

Cheers!

6 0
3 years ago
You are a loan officer for National Bank. You have a loan application submitted by a company for $50,000. This company just got
MArishka [77]

Answer:

5678

Explanation:

I think thats right

5 0
2 years ago
Financial Institutions are described as having an asset transformation function. Explain this function and describe how a bank t
anyanavicka [17]

Answer:

In simple words, Asset transformation can be understood as the process of turning small denominational, instantly available, and generally riskless deposit accounts into lenders moderately risky, high denomination assets that are returned according to a specified schedule–from obligations (deposits) with distinct traits.

4 0
3 years ago
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