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3 years ago

9

Which of the following priority rule will minimize the average flow time of jobs and also perform well in other measures such as

average lateness
A) STR
B) CR
C) SOT
D) LCFS
E) EDD

1 answer:

olga nikolaevna [1]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

LCFS

Explanation:

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Which incentives do interest groups engage in to overcome the free rider problem?

slava [35]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "D": All of these are correct.

Explanation:

The Free Rider Problem refers to someone being able to gap for less or even for free what others pay more for. The problem arises when individuals are unwilling to pay their fair share for something that most others pay for. The problem is more often while talking about public goods. To avoid this issue, some sort of special must be given to consumers such as discounts, promotions for subscriptions or special information online.

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3 years ago

Magic Realm, Inc., has developed a new fantasy board game. The company sold 16,400 games last year at a selling price of $70 per

olga nikolaevna [1]

Answer:

feelsbad

Explanation:

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3 years ago

A company has issued 100,000 options of which 50,000 are "in the money at an average exercise price of $15.00. The Company’s sto

nikitadnepr [17]

Answer:

20,000 shares

Explanation:

The computation of given question is shown below:-

Dilutive number of shares:-

Proceeds from the options issue = 50,000 × $15

= $750,000

Shares issued = 50,000

Treasury shares purchased from proceeds of the options

= ($750,000 ÷ $25)

= 30,000

Dilutive number of shares outstanding = Shares issued - Shares purchased back

50,000 - 30,000

= 20,000 shares

8 0

3 years ago

Fontaine Inc. recently reported net income of $2 million. It has 500,000 shares of common stock, which currently trades at $40 a

Firlakuza [10]

Answer:

$50

Explanation:

Given,

Current Net income = $2,000,000

No. of common shares today = 500,000

Current market price per share = $40

Anticipated Net income in 1 year = $ 3,250,000

Anticipated No. of common shares in 1 year = 500,000 +150000 =650,000

From this data, then

The current Earnings Per Share(EPS) = $\frac{2,000,000}{500,000} = 4$

Current Price/Earning ratio = $\frac{ Price per share}{EPS} = \frac{40}{4} = 10$

Anticipated EPS in 1 year= $\frac{Anticipated Net income in 1 year }{Anticipated No. of common shares in 1 year } = \frac{3,250,000}{650,000} = $5$

If the company's P/E ratio remain as that of the current at 10, then

The anticipated price of stock in 1 year = Anticipated EPS * P/E ratio in 1 year

= $5 *10 = $50

4 0

3 years ago

Presented below is information available for Crane Company.

JulsSmile [24]

Answer:

the acid-test ratio is 1.5 times

Explanation:

The computation of the acid-test ratio is as follows:

Acid test Ratio = Quick assets ÷ current liabilities

where,

Quick Assets is

= Cash + short tern investments + Account receivable

= $3,500 + $50,000 + $56,000

= $109,500

And, the current liabilities is $73,000

So, the acid-test ratio is

= $109,500 ÷ $73,000

= 1.5 times

Hence, the acid-test ratio is 1.5 times

3 0

2 years ago