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emmainna [20.7K]
3 years ago
9

George is 73 years old and retired. He was told that he should withdraw $15,000 from his 401(k) to meet his required minimum dis

tribution. George does not feel like he needs the money, so he decides not to take his withdrawal. Which of the following describes the taxable consequence of his decision?A : If George can prove to the IRS that he does not need to take a required minimum distribution to pay his bill, he will not have to pay taxes.B : George will have to pay $15,000 in taxes because when it comes to required minimum distributions if you do not use it, you will use it.C : George will have to pay $1,500, which is the 10% penalty for failing to take the required minimum distribution.D : George will have to pay $7,500, which is the 50% tax on the amount that he should have taken for his required minimum distribution.
Business
1 answer:
dusya [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

D : George will have to pay $7,500, which is the 50% tax on the amount that he should have taken for his required minimum distribution.

Explanation:

Currently, Required Minimum Distributions (RMDs) have been suspended for the entire 2020 due to CARES Act. But under normal circumstances, Roger would be penalized and 50% of the RMD not retired would be withheld by the IRS. That is why people generally withdraw the RMDs even if they do not need them.

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You are analyzing Jillian’s Jewelry (JJ) stock for a possible purchase. JJ just paid a dividend of $1.50 yesterday. You expect t
disa [49]

Answer:

A. D1 = 1.50*1.06 = 1.59

D2 = 1.59*1.06 = 1.69

D3 = 1.69*1.06 = 1.79

B. PV of D1=(1.50*1.06)/1.13^1=1.41

PV of D2=(1.50*1.06^2)/1.13^2=1.32

PV of D3=(1.50*1.06^3)/1.13^3=1.24

PV of all dividend = (1.50*1.06)/1.13^1 + (1.5*1.06^2)/1.13^2 + (1.5*1.06^3)/1.13^3

PV of all dividend = 1.59/1.13 + 1.6854/1.2769 + 1.786524/1.442897

PV of all dividend = 1.407079646 + 1.319915 + 1.238150748

PV of all dividend = 3.965145814288893

PV of all dividend = 3.97

C. PV = 27.05/(1+13%)^3

PV = 27.05/(1.13)^3

PV = 27.05/1.442897

PV = 18.74701

PV = 18.75

D. The most you should pay for it :

= (1.50*1.06)/1.13^1+(1.5*1.06^2)/1.13^2+(1.5*1.06^3)/1.13^3+27.05/1.13^3

=22.71

E. Value = (1.50*1.06)/(13%-6%)

Value = 1.59 / 7%

Value = 1.59 / 0.07

Value = 22.714286

Value =22.71

F. No, the value is not dependent on the holding period, you can see from above that the value of infinite time period estimated in E equals to the value calculated when there was 3 years holding period.

5 0
3 years ago
Why are debit cards not listed as money?
PIT_PIT [208]
Why are debit cards not listed as money? B<span>ecause they perform the same function as checks, and checks are counted as money. Debit cards are sometimes called check cards because they are linked directly to a checking account just as writing a check to someone would be. Since they are essentially serving the same purpose as a check, they are not listed as a money source. </span>
5 0
3 years ago
2. (double-weight) A European put option is ""in the money."" The price of the underlying security now rises. a. What happens to
sertanlavr [38]

Answer:

(A) premium on put option falls (B) premium on call option rises (C) premium on call changes more in absolute terms

Explanation:

An European put expires on a specific maturity date and can only be exercised on that date. A put option grants the right to sell an underlying security at an exercise price (X) on the exercise date, irrespective of the price the underlying security is trading at (S). On the other hand, a call option grants the right the buy an underlying security at the exercise price. The call or put option buyer will pay a Premium to the option writer to obtain this right. The amount charged as premium depends on how valuable the option is.

The value of a put option (P) = X-S (thus, the lower the price of the underlying security, the more valuable the put option is, vice versa)

The value of a call option (C) = S-X (thus, the higher the price of the underlying security, the more valuation the call option is, vice versa)

If the price of the underlying security rises,

(A) the put option will become less valuable, and its premium will fall

(B) the call option will become more valuable, and its premium will rise.

(C) the absolute size of the change in the call option will be larger than that of the put option. This is because the more the price of the underlying security increases, the more valuable the call option will become (as an example, if I have an option to buy an item at $10 and the current price of the item is $20, I can pay a positive value for that option. If the market price of the item increases to $50, I can pay even more for the option to buy the item at $10).

Whereas, the value of a put option will remain static once the price of the underlying rises beyond the exercise price. For instance, if I have the option to sell an item at $10 when the market price is $20, I just will not exercise the option. I will not change my decision if the market price rises to $50.

3 0
2 years ago
Saint Petersburg Gambles - You are offered the following gamble based on coin flips. If the first heads occurs on the first flip
makkiz [27]

Answer:

The first reason why people are willing to pay so much less or lower than the expected value is due to the uncertainty of flipping a heads. Heads may never be flipped.

The Second reason they are willing to pay so much less or lower is because the expected value will rarely reach over $10 because player would have to make it to the 5th flip in order to recoup their investment in which most of the players are unwilling and ready to take that risk.

Explanation:

Saint Petersburg Gambles

The first reason why people are willing to pay so much less or lower than the expected value is due to the uncertainty of flipping a heads. Heads may never be flipped.

The Second reason they are willing to pay so much less or lower is because the expected value will rarely reach over $10 because player would have to make it to the 5th flip in order to recoup their investment in which most of the players are unwilling and ready to take that risk.

8 0
3 years ago
Manuel borrowed a total of $4000 from two student loans. One loan charged 4% simple interest and the other charged 3.5% simple i
hichkok12 [17]

Answer:

the principal amount at a rate of 4% is 2000

principal amount at a rate of 3.5% is 4000-2000 =2000

Explanation:

We have given total amount borrowed = $4000

Let x amount is borrowed at a rate of 4%

So $4000-x is borrowed at rate of 3.5%

Total interest = $150

We know that simple interest =\frac{principal\ amount\times rate\times time}{100}

So \frac{x\times 4\times 1}{100}+\frac{(4000-x)\times 3.5\times 1}{100}=150

4x+14000-3.5x=15000

0.5 x=1000

x = 2000

So the principal amount at a rate of 4% is 2000

And principal amount at a rate of 3.5% is 4000-2000 =2000

7 0
3 years ago
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