He actually borrowed P=21349-3000=18349 (present value)
Assume the monthly interest is i.
then future value due to loan:
F1=P(1+i)^n=18349(1+i)^(5*12)=18349(1+i)^60
future value from monthly payment of A=352
F2=A((1+i)^n-1)/i=352((1+i)^60-1)/i
Since F1=F2 for the same loan, we have
18349(1+i)^60=352((1+i)^60-1)/i
Simplify notation by defining R=1+i, then
18349(R^60)-352(R^60-1)/(R-1)=0
Simplify further by multiplication by (R-1)
f(R)=18349*R^60*(R-1)-352(R^60-1)=0
Solve for R by trial and error, or by iteration to get R=1.004732
The APR is therefore
12*(1.004732-1)=0.056784, or 5.678% approx.
Answer:
You only want a 10% discount...
500 - 450 = 50
50/500 = 1/10 = .1 = 10%
Your answer is 3 because all you do is form it in a fraction
Step-by-step explanation:
I think we are missing some information (angle F or B or a side length would be great).
but just the right angles are not enough to calculate specific numbers. they would depend on the angle F or e.g. the side length of AB.
without any further information F and AB can be freely changed without changing the known facts, but it changes also C, B, G
so, all I can say is C = 180 - B.
and that G = B.
