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dimaraw [331]
3 years ago
6

4. The function g is defined by the value of (60) ?

Mathematics
1 answer:
GenaCL600 [577]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Here for the comments .

Step-by-step explanation:

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Very large or very small numbers are best input with exponential notation. For instance, the number 8,000,000 (eight million) is
Lerok [7]

Answer:

9*10^{12}km

Step-by-step explanation:

9,460,730,472,580.8 km

First, we can work out 5% of our number, by multiplying it by 0.05

9,460,730,472,580.8 * 0.05 = 473,036,523,629

Now, if we add and subtract our 5% calculated from our original number, we can work out the minimum and maximum value that our final answer can be in the range of.

9,460,730,472,580.8 + 473,036,523,629 = 9.933767*10^{12}\\9,460,730,472,580.8 - 473,036,523,629 =8.98769395*10^{12}

We can see that 9*10^{12} is in the range of valid answers, as:

8.9*10^{12} \leq 9*10^{12} \leq 9.9 * 10^{12}

So, our final answer is:

9*10^{12}km

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Mclaire155 THIS IS FOR YOU not and thank you
jeka57 [31]

Answer:

shhdhd

Step-by-step explanation:

Oh wow great marks

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which expression is equivalent to 5^4(5^-^3)^2?<br> 5^1 <br> 5^2<br> 1/5^1<br> 1/5^2
inessss [21]

Answer:

1 5th  ^2.

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Why 10^33/2=5*10^32? Explain, pls. :(
german

Answer:

see below

Step-by-step explanation:

10^33/2

Rewriting the numerator as 10 * 10 ^ 32

10 * 10 ^32

--------------------

2

10/2 = 5

5 * 10 ^32

Therefore

10^33/2=5*10^32

4 0
2 years ago
What’s the equation to convert 100 inches per minute to feet per hour
laiz [17]
Let's look at each part of the equation. We need to first convert the inches to feet then multiply it by 60 to get per hour.
To convert inches to feet, we need to divide by 12.
100÷12
8 1/3
We need to then multiply it by 60 to find per hour.
8 1/3×60= 500
Let's put the equation together, we'll need parenthesis.
( \frac{100}{12} )*60=500
4 0
3 years ago
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