The answer is D because the first number doesn’t reapeat
Answer:
5.6
Step-by-step explanation:
HAve a nice day!
Answer:
i think thats my answer
Step-by-step explanation:
1 5/8
Answer:
1.2
Step-by-step explanation:
The variance of a binomial distribution is:
σ² = n p (1 − p)
where n is the number of trials and p is the probability of success.
Given n = 5 and p = 0.40:
σ² = 5 (0.40) (1 − 0.40)
σ² = 1.2
