Answer:
The correct answer is letter "B": Decreasing your stocks and increasing your bonds.
Explanation:
Target-date funds are pools of assets employees with a 401(k) retirement account can access. <em>Target-date funds consider stocks as riskier assets than bonds</em>, thus, more stocks than bonds are included in the fund of the employee at first. However, <em>as soon as the date when the employee is to retire approaches, the fund automatically lowers the number of stocks in the employee's account to include more bonds</em>, which are safer securities.
Answer:
If discontinued, then their operating income will decrease by 168,800
It is a better deal to continue the backpack division active.
Explanation:
sales 960,000
variable cost (475,000)
contribution 485,000
fixed cost (527,000)
loss (42,000)
if Dropped
40% of fixed cost are unavoidable
527,000 x 40% = (210,800)
Difference: 42,000-210,800 = (168,800)
Answer:
the price per share in the case when A offers B is $200
Explanation:
The computation of the price per share is as follows:
The fair value is
= ($60 + $120) × 50%
= $90
The 50% represent the percentage of equally
Now the price per share is
= $90 + $90 + $20
= $90 + $110
= $200
Hence, the price per share in the case when A offers B is $200
The same is to be considered
Valuation of a swap during its life will least likely involve in the application of the principle of no arbitrage.
<h3>What is Swap?</h3>
Swap involves two individual that exchanging properties or money. This individual use different tools for the exchange as desired by them.
Arbitrage allows for sale of goods or property at the highest asking price and valuation will most like involve in it.
Therefore, valuation of a swap during its life will least likely involve in the application of the principle of no arbitrage
Learn more on swap below,
brainly.com/question/22298763
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