Answer:
Explanation:
The journal entry to record the bad debt expense is shown below:
Bad debt expense A/c Dr $2,700
To Allowance for doubtful debts $2,700
(Being bad debt expense is recorded)
The computation of the bad debt expense is shown below:
= (Accounts receivable × estimated percentage given ) - (credit balance of Allowance for Doubtful Accounts)
= ($420,000 × 1%) - ($1,500)
= $4,200- $1,500
= $2,700
Answer: $651,000
Explanation:
From the above question, Apple's iPod carries a two-year warranty against manufacturer's defects.
warranty costs are expected to be approximately 3% of sales.
Total sales are $30.7 million, and actual warranty expenditures are $270,000.
Total warranty cost = $30.7 million x 3% = $921,000
During the 1st year only $270,000 of warranty expenses was made.
Therefore the company will carry as liability at the end of the year a total of $921,000 - $270,000 = $651,000
The variable overhead efficiency variance uses exactly same inputs as direct labor efficiency variance statement regarding the variable overhead variance analysis is true.
<h3>
What is variable overhead?</h3>
The varying production costs a business incurs while operating are referred to as "variable overhead." As industrial output changes, so do variable overhead expenses. Different from variable overhead are the general expenditures associated with administrative tasks and other operations that have predetermined budgetary requirements. Organizations need to understand variable costs clearly in order to prevent overspending, which can reduce profit margins. They will be able to precisely set prices for future products thanks to this. For businesses to succeed and stay in operation, they must invest money in the development and promotion of their goods and services. The term "overhead" refers to all costs related to operating a firm, such as managers, salespeople, and marketers for both the corporate office and the manufacturing plants.
To learn more about variable overhead, visit:
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Answer:
$4,420.35
Explanation:
Bond Price = ![C x [1 - (1 + r)^{-n} / r] + F / (1 + r)^{n}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=C%20x%20%5B1%20-%20%281%20%2B%20r%29%5E%7B-n%7D%20%2F%20r%5D%20%2B%20F%20%2F%20%281%20%2B%20r%29%5E%7Bn%7D)
Where:
- C = Coupon
- r = Yield to Maturity
- n = compounding periods to maturity
Now we plug the amounts into the formula =
![Bond Price = $140 x [1 - (1 + 0.034)^{-32} / 0.034] + $5,000 / (1 + 0.034)^{32}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=Bond%20Price%20%3D%20%24140%20x%20%5B1%20-%20%281%20%2B%200.034%29%5E%7B-32%7D%20%2F%200.034%5D%20%2B%20%245%2C000%20%2F%20%281%20%2B%200.034%29%5E%7B32%7D)
The right answer for the question that is being asked and shown above is that: • • Mega Mart is a “dog.” A business unit is considered a dog is when the market growth rate is low and the relative market share is also low.
Business unit that has grown very slowly.
They have a very low share.<span>
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