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kifflom [539]
3 years ago
9

The _______ details a business's cash-generating abilities, projecting revenue, expenses, capital, and cost of goods.

Business
2 answers:
solmaris [256]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: Income Statement

Explanation:

An income statement lists financial projections in the following format: Income includes all revenue streams generated by the business. Cost of goods, includes all the related to the sale of products in inventory, Gross profit margin is the difference revenue and cost of goods.

See more at

https://www.accountingtools.com/articles/2017/5/17/the-income-statement

Your welcome!!!

GrogVix [38]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The correct answer would be option A, Income Statement.

Explanation:

An income statement is one of the many financial statements of a company. It shows the financial condition of the company. It states the Revenues and Expenses of the company. So, The Income Statement details a business's cash generating abilities, projecting revenues, expenses, capital and Cost of goods Sold. From this statement, a company can see how revenues are transformed into the Net Profits of the company.

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Finding Unknown Values in the Cost of Goods Manufactured Report [LO 2-3, 2-6]Mulligan Manufacturing Company uses a job order cos
KiRa [710]

Answer:

<u>For Case 1:</u>

Manufacturing overhead applied = 27,000

Total current manufacturing costs = 60,000

Cost of goods manufactured = 64,000

Cost of goods sold = 61,100

<u>For Case 2:</u>

Direct labor = 7,667

Direct material used = 8,333

Beginning work in process inventory = 26,400

Ending finished goods inventory = 15,000

<u>For Case 3:</u>

Direct labor = 5,760

Manufacturing overhead applied = 8,640

Ending work in process inventory = 10,499

Beginning finished goods inventory = 16,199

Explanation:

Note: The data in the question are merged together. The data are therefore sorted before answering the question. See the attached pdf file for the complete question with the sorted data.

Also note: See the attached excel file for the table with the computed figure in bold red color.

In the attached excel file, the following calculations are employed:

<u>For Case 1:</u>

Since overhead applied to products at a rate of 150 percent of direct labor cost, we have:

Manufacturing overhead applied = Direct labor * 150% = 18,000 * 150% = 27,000

Total current manufacturing costs = Direct material used + Direct labor + Manufacturing overhead applied = 15,000 + 18,000 + 27,000 = 60,000

Cost of goods manufactured = Total current manufacturing costs + Beginning work in process inventory - Ending work in process inventory = 60,000 + 9,900 - 5,900 = 64,000

Cost of goods sold = Cost of goods manufactured + Beginning finished goods inventory - Ending finished goods inventory = 64,000 + 4,700 - 7,600 = 61,100

<u>For Case 2:</u>

Since overhead applied to products at a rate of 150 percent of direct labor cost, we have:

Direct labor = (Manufacturing overhead applied / 150%) * 100% = (11,500 / 150%) * 100% = 7,667

Direct material used = Total current manufacturing costs - Manufacturing overhead applied - Direct labor =   27,500 - 11,500 - 7,667 = 8,333

Beginning work in process inventory = Cost of goods manufactured + Ending work in process inventory -   Total current manufacturing costs = 44,000 + 9,900 - 27,500 = 26,400

Ending finished goods inventory = Cost of goods manufactured + Beginning finished goods inventory - Cost of goods sold = 44,000 + 12,000 – 41,000 = 15,000

<u>For Case 3:</u>

Since overhead applied to products at a rate of 150 percent of direct labor cost, we can let:

Direct labor = x

Therefore, we have:

Manufacturing overhead applied = x * 150%

Since,

Total current manufacturing costs = Direct material used + Direct labor + Manufacturing overhead applied ……………………….. (1)

Where;

Total current manufacturing costs = 28,500

Direct material used = 14,100

We can therefore substitute the relevant values into equation (1) and solve for x as follows:

28,500 = 14,100 + x + 1.5x

28,500 - 14,100 = 2.5x

14,400 = 2.5x

x = 14,400 / 2.5

x = 5,760

Therefore;

Direct labor = x = 5,760

and

Manufacturing overhead applied = x * 150% = 5,760 * 150% = 8,640

Ending work in process inventory = Total current manufacturing costs + Beginning work in process inventory - Cost of goods manufactured = 28,500 + 8,000 - 26,001 = 10,499

Beginning finished goods inventory = Cost of goods sold + Ending finished goods inventory - Cost of goods manufactured = 36,000 + 6,200 - 26,001 = 16,199

Download xlsx
<span class="sg-text sg-text--link sg-text--bold sg-text--link-disabled sg-text--blue-dark"> xlsx </span>
<span class="sg-text sg-text--link sg-text--bold sg-text--link-disabled sg-text--blue-dark"> pdf </span>
4 0
3 years ago
Executives of Company G receive high salaries and excellent benefits, in addition to stock options and numerous other perks. How
ss7ja [257]

Answer: Option (A) is correct.

Explanation:

Here, it's given that the shareholders believe jets be utilized for purposes which are in accordance with increasing the profits of Company G.

From the given comprehension the following must be true in order to support  the reason behind shareholders' objection: <em>Company G executives usually utilize corporate jets for personal travel. </em>

Since utilizing organizations's corporate jet for private use won't increase it's profit. This explains why the shareholders had an objection to executives' use of the corporate jets.

6 0
4 years ago
Relationship-specific adaptations are usually not required when the buying organization uses outsourcing.
vredina [299]
<span>Relationship-specific adaptations are usually not required when the buying organization uses outsourcing. 

False</span>
4 0
4 years ago
You manage a hedge fund with $400 million in assets. Your fee structure provides for a 1% annual management fee with a 20% incen
skad [1K]

Answer:

b. $6,600,000

Explanation:

The computation of the fee is shown below:

= Annual management fee  + performance management fee

where,

Annual management fee = $400 million × 0.01 = $4 million

And, the performance management fee

= Incentive percentage × hedge fund × excess return

= 20% × $400 million × 3.25%

= $2.6 million

The excess return is

= {($445 million - $400 million) × $400 million -  8%}

= 11.25%  - 8%

= 3.25%

So, the fee is

= $4 million + $2.6 million

= $6.6 million or $6,600,000

5 0
3 years ago
Shareholders are selfless benefactors who are interested only in the growth of the business.
kap26 [50]

Answer:

FALSE

Explanation:

Shareholders can definitely be interested in the growth of the business as well as other aspects.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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