Answer:
one 40% discount
Step-by-step explanation:
lets use 100$ total for an example.
Say we have 40% of 100 so the total would be 60$ but it we have 20% and then another 20% off that we would have a final total of 64$\
Prove: 100*.4=40 100-40=60
100*.2=20 100-20=80, 80*.2=16 80-16= 64$
First, divide 30 by 2, then times that by 20. Or, you could times 30 by 10<span />
15 scaled up by a factor of 10 or 15 to the power of 10 (15^10) equals 576650390625
Good luck! c:
Answer:
It was hypothesized that more people would choose the number 7 as their 'lucky' number than any other number.
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that one variable chi-square is used to test whether a single categorical variable follows a hypothesized population distribution. The Chi Square statistic compares the tallies or counts of categorical responses between two (or more) independent groups
The null hypothesis (H0) for the test is that all proportions are equal.
The alternate hypothesis (H1) is given condition in the question.
A. It was hypothesized that more people would choose the number 7 as their 'lucky' number than any other number.
This is suited for testing with a one-variable chi-square test because we are testing if the proportion of people who choose number 7 is greater than the proportion of any other numbers. So, we are therefore comparing more than 2 proportions.
B. People who choose the number 7 as their 'lucky' number are significantly more superstitious than people who choose the number 13 as their 'lucky' number.
This is not suited for testing with a one-variable chi-square test. A z test is more preferable in this instance because we are testing just two proportions.
C. Choice of 'lucky' number is directly related to measures superstition.
This is not suited for testing with a one-variable chi-square test because chi square test is not used for showing relationship between variables.
D. All of these. Since option A is correct, this option can not be correct.
I believe it would be 706 because if you do 17.65 x 40 =706