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Masja [62]
3 years ago
11

Get 46 points!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
valina [46]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:TSA=33 LSA =123

Step-by-step explanation:

its easy if you want any else help let me knop

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Mr. Robins earns a commission on each airfare he books. At the end of the day, he had booked $208.60 worth of airfare and earned
Marina86 [1]

Answer:

  15%

Step-by-step explanation:

His rate is ...

  rate = commission/sales · 100% = 31.29/208.60 · 100%

  rate = 15%

Mr. Robins' commission rate is 15% of bookings.

3 0
3 years ago
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For the schools sports day a group of students prepared 21 1/2 lbs of lemonade at the end of the day they had 2 5/8 lbs left ove
Ludmilka [50]
I think the answer is 9 1/4
8 0
3 years ago
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1 US Dollar =13.05 pesos 1meter =1.094 yars
Evgesh-ka [11]

Answer:

$18.01

Step-by-step explanation:

Convert from pesos to US dollars

6429/13.05 = $492.64

Convert from meters to yards

1.904* 25= 27.35

Divide to find the cost of one yard of fabric

492.64/27.35 = $18.01

4 0
3 years ago
1.
butalik [34]

The answers to each of the given problems are;

1) Sum of two smallest integers  = 23

2) 3x + 6

3) 7.5 m/s²

<h3>How to find the sum of consecutive Integers?</h3>

1) We are told that sum of 4 consecutive integers is increased by 20 and equals 70. Thus, we have;

x + (x + 1) + (x + 2) + (x + 3) + 20 = 70

4x + 26 = 70

4x = 70 - 26

4x = 44

x = 44/4

x = 11

Thus, sum of two smallest integers = 11 + 11 + 1 = 23

2) Let the consecutive odd numbers be;

x, (x + 2) and (x + 4)

Sum of these consecutive odd numbers is;

x + x + 2 + x + 4 = 3x + 6

3) We are given the equation to find the acceleration as;

(v_final)² - (v_initial)² = 2ad

We are given;

v_final = 40 m/s

v_initial = 10 m/s

d = 100 m

Thus;

40² - 10² = 2a(100)

1500 = 200a

a = 1500/200

a = 7.5 m/s²

Read more about sum of integers at; brainly.com/question/17695139

#SPJ1

7 0
1 year ago
Please help idk thisssss
Alekssandra [29.7K]
ANSWER
0.073 \% = 0.00073


EXPLANATION

Recall that,

\% =  \frac{1}{100}


That is why
100\%
is equivalent to
1.





This implies that,


0.073\% = 0.073 \times  \frac{1}{100}






This is the same as,


0.073\% = \frac{0.073}{100}


When we are dividing by
100
we move the decimal point backwards two times.


This implies that,

0.073\% = 0.00073


6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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