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Verdich [7]
3 years ago
15

Why might an older person invest in conservative investment portfolio? a.Because an older person has less time to make up for ba

d investments b. Because conservative portfolios have more potential for fast growth c. Because experts recommend making smaller investments as you age d. Because there are more fees associated with a risky portfolio
Business
1 answer:
Musya8 [376]3 years ago
4 0
The correct answer is <span>a.Because an older person has less time to make up for bad investments

Young people have their entire life to fix their bad investments and can invest into new things that are up and coming and developing. Older people don't have time for that and have to approach investments differently.</span>
You might be interested in
Many adults owe money from their college loans for years into their professional careers. a newspaper would like to estimate the
Sergio039 [100]

Because only young adults were sampled, undercoverage bias may cause the newspaper to overestimate the proportion of all adults who have college debts.

<h3><u>What is bias in sampling?</u></h3>

When a sample is chosen in statistics, sampling bias is a bias that causes some individuals of the target population to have a lower or greater sampling probability than others. As a result, not every person or event was equally likely to have been chosen, resulting in a biased sample of a population (or non-human variables).

If this is not taken into consideration, results may be incorrectly attributed to the sampling procedure rather than the phenomenon being studied. Although some people identify sampling bias as a distinct sort of prejudice, sampling bias is typically categorized as a subtype of selection bias, sometimes referred to as sample selection bias.

Learn more about sampling bias with the help of the given link:

brainly.com/question/11094051

#SPJ4

7 0
1 year ago
An investor is considering two investment, an office building and bonds. He can only invest on of them. The possible return from
Hitman42 [59]

Answer:

1) Calculate the expected return and variance of investing in office building.

expected return:

$50,000 x 0.3 = $15,000

$60,000 x 0.2 = $12,000

$80,000 x 0.1 = $8,000

$10,000 x 0.3 = $3,000

<u>$0 x 0.1 = $0                      </u>

expected return = $38,000

$50,000 - $38,000 = -$12,000² = $144,000,000

$60,000 - $38,000 = -$22,000² = $484,000,000

$80,000 - $38,000 = -$42,000² = $1,764,000,000

$10,000 - $38,000 = -$28,000² = $784,000,000

<u>$0 - $38,000 = -$38,000² = $1,444,000,000         </u>

<u />

expected variance: (0.3 x $144,000,000) + (0.2 x $484,000,000) + (0.1 x $1,764,000,000) + (0.3 x $784,000,000) + (0.1 x $1,444,000,000) = $43,200,000 + $96,200,000 + $176,400,000 + $235,200,000 + $144,400,000 = $695,400,000

standard deviation = √$895,800,000 = $26,370

2) Calculate the expected return and variance of investing in bonds.

expected return:

$30,000 x 0.4 = $12,000

<u>$40,000 x 0.6 = $24,000   </u>

expected return = $36,000

$30,000 - $36,000 = -$6,000² = $36,000,000

<u>$40,000 - $36,000 = $4,000² = $16,000,000</u>

<u />

expected variance: (0.4 x $36,000,000) + (0.6 x $16,000,000) = $14,400,000 + $9,600,000 = $24,000,000

standard deviation = √$24,000,000 = $4,899

3) Based on the expected return we should choose investing in a building, but if we consider the variance and the standard deviation of the investments, I would choose investing in bonds. The difference in expected returns is not that large (only $2,000) but the variance and standard deviations of investing in the office buildings is quite large, meaning that the risk is very high.

3 0
3 years ago
The standard factory overhead rate is $7.50 per machine hour ($6.20 for variable factory overhead and $1.30 for fixed factory ov
lesantik [10]

Answer:

$26,000 adverse variance

Explanation:

Fixed Overheads Volume Variance = Budgeted Overheads at Actual Output - Budgeted Fixed Overheads

                                                             = $1.30 x 60,000 hours - $1.30 x 80,000

                                                             = $78,000 - $104,000

                                                             = $26,000 adverse variance

The fixed factory overhead volume variance is $26,000 adverse variance

7 0
3 years ago
Managerial accounting differs from financial accounting in that managerial accounting A. is required by Generally Accepted Accou
snow_tiger [21]

Answer:

The correct option is (b)

Explanation:

Managerial accounting is for internal purpose for the managers for decision making. It is not mandatory as per GAAP, unlike financial accounting. Transactions are recorded as per the understanding of managers and not as per specific standards,

Managerial accounting focuses on data being relevant and not necessarily objective. Since, it caters to internal users, it is customized as per their requirement. Financial accounting, on the other hand needs to be highly objective as it caters to a wider audience who need transparent and reliable financial information.

Therefore, managerial accounting focuses on data relevance over data objectivity.

4 0
3 years ago
Xyz stock price and dividend history are as follows:
Natali5045456 [20]
1. The rate of return for each year is 4.05%
<span>2010 $100 $4 => 4%
2011 $110 $4 => 3.6%
2012 $90 $4 => 4.4%
2013 $95 $4 => 4.2%
Average is 4.05%
2. The dollar-weighted rate of return is
-3(4%) - 2(3.6%) + 1(4.4%) + 4(4.2%)
14.75%</span><span /><span>
</span>
7 0
3 years ago
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