Answer:
It’s A the nominal interest rate
Explanation:
Answer:
If opportunity cost is 5%, PV=10,366.05
If opportunity cost is 6.5%, PV=9,934.19
If opportunity cost is 11.5%, PV=8,656.79
Explanation:
PV=Σ
If opportunity cost is 5%: PV = 
=10,366.05
If opportunity cost is 6.5%: PV = 
=9,934.19
If opportunity cost is 11.5%: PV = 
=8,656.79
Answer:
c. a debit to Inventory for $10,000
Explanation:
Whenever goods are purchased on a discount to be received on payment basis, the inventory is first recorded at cost.
Also as per the general rule, discount is a kind of income, and incomes are recorded only when earned, therefore, the cost of inventory shall be reduced by 4% only when the payment is made, therefore the inventory on the date of purchase shall be recorded at $10,000 only and not for $9,600.
Thus, correct option is c
Answer:
A) Somewhat effective, but only to the extent that most of the tax cut is concurrently spent on domestic output, that multiplier effects occur, and crowding out is small.
Explanation:
First of all, the larger amount of money would increase the inflation rate since aggregate supply hasn't increased. The number of goods and services offered do not vary, then only thing that varies is the amount of disposable money.
The larger the multiplier, the larger the positive effect. The multiplier formula = 1 / MPS (marginal propensity to save). Even though inflation increases, still the economy is going to grow. That unless the local residents decide to purchase many imported goods. The larger the amount of imported goods purchased, the lower the positive effects.
This type of policy can be very effective under conditions where deflation or inflation rates are near 0 or even negative. Although high inflation is very bad for the economy, a small amount of inflation is always needed to boost economic growth. The healthy inflation is around 1.5 - 2% per year. This way salaries and wages can grow, pushing aggregate demand and supply.
Answer:
12.085 %
Explanation:
WACC = Cost of Equity x Weight of Equity + Cost of Preference Stock x Weight of Preference Stock + Cost of Debt x Weight of Debt
Remember to use the after tax cost of debt :
after tax cost of debt = interest x ( 1 - tax rate)
= 8.00 % x (1 - 0.35)
= 5.20 %
therefore,
WACC = 22.00 % x 0.40 + 8.50 % x 0.05 + 5.20 % x 0.55
= 12.085 %
thus
the firm's WACC given a tax rate of 35 percent is 12.085 %
