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Katarina [22]
3 years ago
14

Elmdale Company has a machine that affixes labels to bottles. The machine has a book value of $80,000 and a remaining useful lif

e of 3 years and no salvage value. A new, more efficient machine is available at a cost of $300,000 that will have a 5-year useful life with no salvage value. The new machine will lower annual variable production costs from $520,000 to $410,000.
Required:
Prepare an analysis showing whether the old machine should be retained or replaced.
Business
1 answer:
sattari [20]3 years ago
7 0

Answer and Explanation:

The preparation of the analysis is shown below:

Particulars  Retained equipment Replace equipment Net income change

Variable cost  $1,560,000                  $1,230,000                $330,000

             ($520,000 × 3 years)      ($410,000 × 3 years)

New machine cost                             $300,000                -$300,000

Net change                                                                   $30,000

So based on the analysis the old machine should be replaced

Therefore we considered all the information given in the question

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An increase in the expected rate of inflation: shifts the short-run Phillips curve down. shifts the short-run Phillips curve dow
ZanzabumX [31]

Answer:

shifts the short-run Phillips curve up

Explanation:

The Phillips curve is a graph that shows the relationship between inflation and unemployment. In the short run, there is an inverse relationship between inflation and unemployment. The Phillip curve submits that high inflation is the cost to pay for economic growth. economic growth is accompanied by low unemployment. In the long run, there is no trade-off between inflation and unemployment.

An increase in expected inflation leads to an upward shift of the Phillips curve in the short run. Unemployment would stay unchanged. While a decrease in expected inflation leads to a downward shift of the Phillips curve

Stagflation in the 1970s have disproved the Phillips curve. Stagflation is when there is high unemployment and high inflation  

7 0
3 years ago
On January 3, 2014, Trusty Delivery Service purchased a truck at a cost of $90,000. Before placing the truck in service, Trusty
likoan [24]

Answer:

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 - 5 under:

  • the Straight-line method is $90,000.
  • the Units-of-production method is $90,000.
  • the Double-declining-balance method is $86,170.

Explanation:

The total cost of the asset is $90,000 + $3,000 + $1,500 + $4,500 = $99,000, since all the other costs were directly attributable cost and were necessary to bring the asset to usable form.

  • The painting is capitalized because it is the first time Trust Delivery would be using the asset, otherwise it would have been expended
  • Overhauling cost can be regarded as a separate asset, if we were provided with different useful lives - componentization.

Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / No of years = ($99,000 - $9,000) / 5 years = $18,000 yearly depreciation expense.

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 to 5 is $18,000 x 5 years $90,000.

The unit-of-production method is used when the asset value closely relates to the units of output it is able to produce. It is expressed with the formula below:

(Original Cost - Salvage value) / Estimated production capacity x Units/year

At Year 1, depreciation expense (DE) is: ($99,000 - $9,000) / 100,000 miles x 22,500 miles = $20,250/year

Accumulated depreciation for the first four years is $20,250 x 4 years = $81,000.

At Year 5, depreciation = $90,000 / 100,000 miles x 10,000 miles = $9,000

Note that this depreciation method results in higher depreciation charge when the asset is heavily used, at this time, it was in Years 1 - 4.

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 5, under this method, is $90,000 (addition of first four years and the Year 5).

The double-declining method is otherwise known as the reducing balance method and is given by the formula below:

Double declining method = 2 X SLDP X BV

SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

BV = Book value

SLDP is 100%/5years = 20%, then 20% multiplied by 2 to give 40%

At Year 1, 40% X $99,000 = $39,600

At Year 2, 40% X $59,400 ($99,000 - $39,600) = $23,760

At Year 3, 40% X $35,640 ($59,400 - $23,760) = $14,256

At Year 4, 40% X $21,384 ($35,640 - $14,256) = $8,554 approximately (the depreciation expense would stop at this stage since the amount falls below the residual value).

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4, under this method, is $86,170 (addition of all the yearly depreciation).

7 0
3 years ago
Giả sử anh/chị đang chuẩn bị thành lập một doanh nghiệp kinh doanh về một/hoặc một số sản phẩm trong một lĩnh vực. Hãy xây dựng
Fofino [41]

Pls type in english... Question not understandable

3 0
3 years ago
Oldham Corporation bases its predetermined overhead rate on a variable manufacturing overhead cost of $4.00 per machine-hour and
Rzqust [24]

Answer:

$21.42

Explanation:

The computation of fixed component in the predetermined overhead rate is shown below:-

Fixed component in the predetermined overhead rate = Fixed Overhead ÷ Machine Hours

= $87,822 ÷ 4,100

= $21.42

Therefore for computing the fixed component in the predetermined overhead rate we simply divide the fixed overhead by machine hours.

And all the other information i.e given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it

5 0
3 years ago
"Expected Return Ecolap Inc. (ECL) recently paid a $0.46 dividend. The dividend is expected to grow at a 14.5 percent rate. At a
skad [1K]

Answer:

  • <u>15.7%</u>

Explanation:

The <em>price</em> of a <em>stock</em> can be modeled by the present value of the stream of future <em>dividends</em> discounted at a rate equal to the<em> return expected</em>.

The equation, when the dividends are expected to <em>grow</em> at a constant rate, less than the return rate is:

        Price_0=\dfrac{Div_1}{r-g}

Where:

  • Price₀ is the <em>current price</em>: $44.12
  • Div₁ is the <em>dividend </em>to be paid a year from now: $0.46 × 1.145 = $0.53
  • g is the expected constant <em>growth rate</em>: 14.5% = 0.145
  • r is the <em>expected return</em>

Then, you can solve for r:

      r=\dfrac{Div_1}{Price_0}+g

        r=\dfrac{\$ 0.53}{\$ 44.12}+0.145=0.157=15.7\%

4 0
3 years ago
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