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vovikov84 [41]
4 years ago
9

Jerry, a partner with 30% capital and profit interest, received his Schedule K-1 from Plush Pillows, LP. At the beginning of the

year, Jerry's tax basis in his partnership interest was $50,000. His current year Schedule K-1 reported an ordinary loss of $15,000, long-term capital gain of $3,000, qualified dividends of $2,000, $500 of non-deductible expenses, a $10,000 cash contribution, and a reduction of $4,000 in his share of partnership debt. What is Jerry's adjusted basis in his partnership interest at the end of the year?
Business
1 answer:
Kisachek [45]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The Jerry's adjusted basis in his partnership interest at the end of the year is $45,500

Explanation:

The adjusted basis of Jerry in his partnership is shown below:

= Partnership interest - Ordinary loss + long term capital gain + dividend - non deductible expense + cash contribution - share reduction

= $50,000 -$15,000 + $3,000 + $2,000 - $500 + $10,000 -$4,000

= $45,500

The ordinary loss, share reduction, and non deductible expense would decrease the Jerry interest in partnership firm while all other cost would increase his interest. That's why the amount is added and subtracted.

Hence, the Jerry's adjusted basis in his partnership interest at the end of the year is $45,500

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Answer: AGREE

Explanation:

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They will sell at a rate where the Marginal Revenue curve will be below the demand curve. This will mean a higher price than a competitive market which was probably the main incentive for collusion.

A recent example would be the collusion between BMW, Daimler and Volkswagen, to hinder technological progress in improving the quality of vehicle emissions in order to reduce the cost of production and maximize profits. Thankfully this was busted by the European Commission in 2019.

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Answer:

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