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daser333 [38]
3 years ago
12

The number of chocolate chips in an 18-ounce bag of Chips Ahoy! chocolate chip cookies is approximately normally distributed wit

h a mean of 1262 chops and standard deviation 118 chips according to a study by cadets of U.S. Air Force Academy. (Source: Brad Warner and Jim Rutledge, Chance 12(1): 10-14, 1999)
(a) What is the probability that a randomly selected 18-ounce bag of Chips Ahoy! contains fewer than 1000 chocolate chips? (use 2-table)

(b) What is the probability that a randomly selected 18-ounce bag of Chips Ahoy! contains more than 1200 chocolate chips?

(c) What is the probability that a randomly selected 18-ounce bag of Chips Ahoy! contains between 1000 and 1400 chocolate chips, inclusive?
Mathematics
1 answer:
sineoko [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

a) 0.013

b) 0.7

c) 0.866

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the following information in the question:

Mean, μ = 1262

Standard Deviation, σ = 118

We are given that the distribution of number of chocolate chips is a bell shaped distribution that is a normal distribution.

Formula:

z_{score} = \displaystyle\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}

a) P(fewer than 1000 chocolate chips)

P(x < 1000)

P( x < 1000) = P( z < \displaystyle\frac{1000 - 1262}{118}) = P(z < -2.220)

Calculation the value from standard normal z table, we have,  

P(x < 1000) = 0.013 = 1.3\%

b) P(contains more than 1200 chocolate chips)

P(x > 1200) = P(z > \displaystyle\frac{1200-1262}{118}) = P(z > -0.5254)\\\\P( z > -0.5254) = 1 - P(z \leq -0.5254)

Calculating the value from the standard normal table we have,

1 - 0.300 = 0.7 = 70\%\\P( x > 1200) = 0.7

c)P(contains between 1000 and 1400 chocolate chips)

P(1000 \leq x \leq 1400) = P(\displaystyle\frac{1000 - 1262}{118} \leq z \leq \displaystyle\frac{1400-1262}{118}) = P(-2.22 \leq z \leq 1.169)\\\\= P(z \leq 1.169) - P(z < -2.22)\\= 0.879 - 0.013 = 0.866 = 86.6\%

P(1000 \leq x \leq 1400) = 86.6\%

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bixtya [17]

Answer:

Since every 30 days  he  wil have both lessons on the same day , and  he already  had both lessons on the last day of the previous month, that means that the day 30  the current month   he  wil have both lessons on the same day (It may be the last day if the month has 30 days or it may not be the last day if the month has 31 days)

Step-by-step explanation:

Lets find the least common factor of 5 and 6

Multiples of 5

5  10  15  20  35  30  35  40......

Multiples of 6

6  12  18  24  30 36  

LCF of 5 and 6 = 30

Every 30 days  he  wil have both lessons on the same day

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3 years ago
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ehidna [41]

Answer:  1) 0.10

               2) 0.60

               3) 0.20

               4) 0.10

<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>

The total frequency is 20+120+40+20 = 200.  This means they ran the experiment 200 times.  The probability distribution is calculated by the satisfactory number of outcomes (frequency) divided by the total number of experiments/outcomes (total frequency):

\begin{array}{c|c||lc}\underline{x}&\underline{f}&\underline{f\div 200}&\underline{\text{Probability Distribution}}\\1&20&20\div200=&0.10\\2&120&120\div 200=&0.60\\3&40&40\div 200=&0.20\\4&20&20\div 200=&0.10\end{array}\right]

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Semenov [28]
I can't see it well sorry
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Need answer ASAP is an assessment!!!!
worty [1.4K]

Answer:

76%, \frac{19}{25}, and Likely

Step-by-step explanation:

The problem tells us that P(red) = 0.76

0.76 as a percentage is represented as 76 out of a 100 or 76%

0.76 as a fraction is \frac{76}{100} which can be simplified to \frac{19}{25} by dividing the numerator and denominator by 4

The probability could be considered "Likely" as it is above 50%

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elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]
M=14.6 (is rounded to the nearest tenth.)
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