3 years ago

Why are three partial product in 1 (a) and only two partial product s in 1 (b)?

Mathematics

2 answers:

kakasveta [241]3 years ago

6 0

They are the same.

Please let me know if you need anymore help.

KIM [24]3 years ago

3 0

because partial 1(a) and partial 1(b) are the same.

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PLS ANSWER IT I just need the answer

aalyn [17]

The y-intercept is (0,2)

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Step-by-step explanation:

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_____

<em>Comment on the question</em>

We prefer math symbols:

4/50 + 3/5 = ??

or, if you can't manage that, proper English:

four fiftieths plus three fifths.

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4 years ago

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Why are three partial product in 1 (a) and only two partial product s in 1 (b)?​

Why are three partial product in 1 (a) and only two partial product s in 1 (b)?