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tigry1 [53]
3 years ago
10

Why are three partial product in 1 (a) and only two partial product s in 1 (b)?​

Mathematics
2 answers:
kakasveta [241]3 years ago
6 0

They are the same.

Please let me know if you need anymore help.

KIM [24]3 years ago
3 0

because partial 1(a) and partial 1(b) are the same.

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Andrew is showing his work in simplifying (−5.7 + 2.2) − 1.1.
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Answer: In step 1, Andrew used the commutative property

Explanation:
In step 1 he used commutative, which is a + b = b + a
(- 5.7 + 2.2) = 2.2 + (- 5.7)

Step 2, he used associative property, not the distributive.

Step 3, he just added5.7 + 1.1 = 6.8

Step 4, he distributed the negative sign:
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Answer:

-4

Step-by-step explanation:

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sesenic [268]

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1,2,4,8

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Answer:

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