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tigry1 [53]
3 years ago
10

Why are three partial product in 1 (a) and only two partial product s in 1 (b)?​

Mathematics
2 answers:
kakasveta [241]3 years ago
6 0

They are the same.

Please let me know if you need anymore help.

KIM [24]3 years ago
3 0

because partial 1(a) and partial 1(b) are the same.

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Z1 and Z2 are vertical angles. Z2 has a measure of 63º. What is the measure of Z1? Enter your answer in the box.​
Sergio039 [100]

Answer:

vertical angles are equal:

< (1) = < (2) (in fact they are congruent angles)

so, if measure of < 1 is 63° and measure of < 2 is 4x-9°, than

4x-9=63° ...solve for x

4x=63%2B9°

4x=72°

x=72%2F4°

x=18°

if x=18°, than < 2 is 4x-9=4%2A18-9=72-9=63°...it proves that < (1) = < (2) are congruent angles

Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago
If a(x) = 3x + 1 and 5(x)=1/x-4, what is the domain of (ba)(x)?
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For this case we have the following fusions:

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By definition:

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Answer:

(-∞, 0) U (0,∞)

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The correct answer is 15 for that problem
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