3 years ago

Why are three partial product in 1 (a) and only two partial product s in 1 (b)?

2 answers:

6 0

They are the same.

Please let me know if you need anymore help.

KIM [24]3 years ago

3 0

because partial 1(a) and partial 1(b) are the same.

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Alex787 [66]

Step-by-step explanation:

4300$ - 100%

x$ - 8%

(4300 × 8) ÷ 100 = 344$

344 + 320 = 664$

answer: 664$ :))))

8 0

2 years ago

AnnyKZ [126]

I believe the answer would be A

8 0

2 years ago

kipiarov [429]

1/8 I think but I am not 100% sure

7 0

3 years ago

devlian [24]

A is what the answer is

6 0

3 years ago

Shkiper50 [21]

Answer:

4(r+4)(r-4)

Step-by-step explanation:

If you factor it out, then it will be 4(r+4)(r-4). You can double check by multiplying it.

5 0

3 years ago

Why are three partial product in 1 (a) and only two partial product s in 1 (b)?​