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Mnenie [13.5K]
2 years ago
13

Suppose labor productivity differences are the only determinants of comparative advantage, and Brazil and Chile both produce onl

y coffee and sugar. In Chile, either 5 units of coffee or 2 units of sugar can be produced in one day. In Brazil, a day of labor produces either 2 units of coffee or 1 unit of sugar.
Refer to Scenario 34-1. Which country has a comparative advantage in producing sugar?

Select one:

a. Brazil only
b. Chile only
c. Both countries
d. Neither country
e. It cannot be determined with the information given.
Business
1 answer:
o-na [289]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": Brazil only.

Explanation:

Comparative advantage is the ability of an organization or individual to produce at lower opportunity costs. This is achieved by introducing efficient productivity strategies or achieving economies of scale.

For the case given, the comparative advantage of Brazil and Chile is based on labor productivity only. Then:

  • <em>The comparative advantage of Chile on sugar</em> = \frac{2 units of sugar}{5 units of coffee} = 0.4
  • <em>The comparative advantage of Brazil on sugar </em>= \frac{1 unit of sugar}{2 units of coffee} = 0.5

Thus, <em>Brazil has a comparative advantage over Chile on sugar.</em>

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Assume that securitization combined with borrowing and irrational exuberance in Hyperville have driven up the value of existing
Mashcka [7]

Answer:

The financial securities would decline by $106.7

Explanation:

Given

Financial securities at a geometric rate= $128

Underlying Security Asset = $14

Decreased value of the underlying asset = $6

When there's a reduction of $6 in the underlying asset price, this means the securities value will also get a reduction by a ratio of 6.

Because of this, we'll only consider the financial securities because it increases at a geometric progression unlike underlying assets that increases by arithmetic progression.

First, the value of financial securities needs to be calculated using the following formula;.

Value of Financial Securities = Financial securities at a geometric rate ÷

Decreased value of the underlying asset

Value of Financial Securities = $128 ÷ 6

Value of Financial Securities = $21.3

Tthe decline value of the financial securities is calculated as follows:

Decline Value = Financial securities at a geometric rate - Value of Financial Securities

Decline Value = $128 - $21.3

Decline Value = $106.7

Hence, the financial securities would decline by $106.7

6 0
3 years ago
When a broker-dealer maintains a firm market in a stock, that broker-dealer is committed to?
Jlenok [28]

When a broker-dealer maintains a firm market in a stock, that broker-dealer is committed to purchasing or sale of up to the stated maximum number of round lots (the standard trading unit of the stock) at the stated price.

This is further explained below.

<h3>What is a firm?</h3>

Generally, A company providing professional services for compensation, such as law or accountancy, is called a "firm." One key tenet of "theory of the company" is that enterprises' primary purpose is to increase shareholder wealth.

In conclusion, By keeping a "firm market," a broker-dealer promises to buy or sell up to the maximum number of round lots (the stock's standard trading unit) at the quoted price.

Read more about the firm

brainly.com/question/19132323

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7 0
1 year ago
How much is round trip plane ticket cost from cleveland ohio to phoenix arozona
Marizza181 [45]
Depends on which airline you take
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6 0
2 years ago
The Ramapo Company produces two products, Blinks and Dinks. They are manufactured in two departments, Fabrication and Assembly.
katen-ka-za [31]

Answer:

Allocated MOH per unit= $45.94

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Product Number of Units Labor Hours Per Unit

Blinks 1,178 2  

Dinks 2,060 3

Estimated overhead costs for the period= 108,300 + 87,800= $196,100

Total direct labor hours= (1,178*2) + (2,060*3)= 8,536

<u>First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 196,100 / 8,536

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $22.97 per direct labor hour

<u>Now, we allocate overhead to Blinks:</u>

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 22.97*2= $45.94

5 0
3 years ago
Jimmy Company’s cash balance at the end of the month was $8,500. After comparing the company’s records with the monthly bank sta
Elodia [21]

Answer:

The answer is C) $7,970.

Explanation:

We have 04 reconciling items as below:

- Outstanding checks $800: this amount was already recorded in the Cash account of the company once the check was written; thus, the Cash ending balance has already reflected this amount.

- Deposits in transit $700: this amount was already recorded in the Cash or Cash-equivalent account of the company once the deposit was made; thus, the Cash ending balance has already reflected this amount.

- Bank service charge $30: fees paid to banking activities and are deducted without informing to the company. Thus, this deduction in cash is not reflected in the Cash account.

-  NSF check $500: this was recorded as the increase in Cash account by the company once the check was written by the person/entity to the company. However, the writer's account balance was not sufficient to honor this check amount to the company; thus Cash Account at the end of the period should reduced by $500. Instead, this $500 may be recorded in Account Receivable account.

Thus, the adjusted cash balance = 8,500 - 30 - 500 = $7,970.

7 0
3 years ago
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