Answer:
correct option is d. two-thirds
Explanation:
given data
accumulated = $12.5 trillion
net worth = 14 percent
solution
here as per statistical data of 4th quarter in year 2015,
that required holding is two third of having home.
and Accumulated equity indicate the demand for housing in the country
so here 1 - 
= 
rd left out
it is assumed that they should get home at the beginning of 2015 (in the 1st quarter)
so correct option is d. two-thirds
<span>Boeing stock has increased to about 41.4% while Campbell soup has decreased to about 58.5%. This is because Boeing's rate of return was significantly higher than Campbell's soup, therefore with the returns added in, the portion of the portfolio that is invested in Boeing has increased.</span>
If Kingbird wants to pay $420,000 of dividends in 2022. The amount of dividends that the common stockholders will receive is $133,800.
<h3>Dividends </h3>
Using this formula
Remainder allocation to common stockholders=[Total dividend – (Dividiend in arrears + 2022 dividend)
Let plug in the formula
Remainder allocation to common stockholders=[$420,000 – (10,600×9%×100×2)+(10,600×9%×100)
Remainder allocation to common stockholders=[$420,000 – ($190,800+ $95,400)]
Remainder allocation to common stockholders=[$420,000 –$286,200]
Remainder allocation to common stockholders=$133,800
Therefore the amount of dividends will common stockholders receive is $133,800.
Learn more about dividends here:brainly.com/question/14076997
Answer:
The rate of return on the risky asset is 16% and on treasury bill is 6% and we need a return of (1100-1,000)/1000= 10% or 0.1
If we think of x as the percentage investment in risky asset and 1-x as the investment in non risky asset we can mathematically find what proportion we need to invest in each asset to get this return.
16x+ 6(1-x)=10
16x+6-6x=10
10x=4
x=4/10
x= 0.4
This equation tells us that we should invest 40% in risky assets and 1-x which is 60% in treasury bills. We can test our answer by putting these values and see if the return is 10 %
(0.4*16)+(0.6*6)= Rate of return
Rate of return=10%
10% of 1000 = 100
100+1000=$1100
Explanation:
Answer:
Margin of safety=55.6%
Explanation:
The formula for the operating income is as folows;
operating income=Sales revenue-total cost
where;
operating income=$ 15,000
Sales revenue=S
total cost=variable cost+fixed cost
variable cost=70% of S=(70/100)×S=0.7 S
fixed cost=$12,000
replacing;
15,000=S-(0.7 S+12,000)
15,000+12,000=0.3 S
27,000=0.3 S
S=27,000/0.3
S=Answer:
Explanation:
The formula for the operating income is as follows;
operating income=Sales revenue-total cost
where;
operating income=$ 15,000
Sales revenue=S
total cost=variable cost+fixed cost
variable cost=70% of S=(70/100)×S=0.7 S
fixed cost=$12,000
replacing;
15,000=S-(0.7 S+12,000)
15,000+12,000=0.3 S
27,000=0.3 S
S=27,000/0.3
S=$90,000
Current sales=$90,000
The formula for margin of safety is as follows;
Margin of safety=(Current sales level-break even point sales level)/current sales levels
At break even,
Operating income=0
0=S-(0.7 S+12,000)
0=S-0.7 S-12,000
0.3 S=12,000
S=12,000/0.3
S=40,000
Break even sales=$40,000
replacing;
Margin of safety=((90,000-40,000)/90,000}×100
Margin of safety=55.6%
