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d1i1m1o1n [39]
3 years ago
12

Convert the decimal to a percent.

Mathematics
1 answer:
sleet_krkn [62]3 years ago
6 0
0.007 \cdot100\%=0.7\%
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Help plz right answers only if you give wrong answer or link you get reptored.
Inessa [10]

Answer:

1. The cost increases $0.30 each time 1 goldfish is

added.

7 0
3 years ago
Is the line through points P(2, –5) and Q(–5, –1) parallel to the line through points R(5, 4) and S(–2, 5)? Explain.
Irina-Kira [14]

Answer:

the answer is No

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the first line has a slope of -4/7 and the other line has a slope of -1/7. This can be shown in point slope form y-y1=m(x-x1) where m=∆y/∆x.

Through points P and Q, the point slope is represented as -1-(-5)=m(-5-2) ; 4 = -7m ; m = 4/-7. The next two points R and S can be shown in point slope as 5-4=m(-2-5) ; 1 = -7m ; m =1/-7. With the fact that parallel lines must have equal slopes, these two lines cannot be parallel because -4/7≠-1/7

3 0
4 years ago
Which of the following best describes the equation below?
Reika [66]
4(x + 9) + 5x = 9x - 36

=> 4x + 36 + 5x = 9x - 36

=> 9x + 36 = 9x - 36

=> 9x - 9x = -36 - 36

=> 0 = -72

You can see that the equation doesn't hold true.

So there is no solution for this equation.

Answer is C. no real solutions
5 0
4 years ago
A poker hand is a set of 5 cards randomly chosen from a deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of a (a) royal flush (ten, jack,
zysi [14]

Answer:

a) 0.000001539

b) 0.00001385

c) 0.0002401

d) 0.001441

e) 0.001966

Step-by-step explanation:

Since there are 52 deck of cards, and the hand of the poker is 5 set, then the total number of hands achievable would be

T = 52! / 5!(52 - 5)!

T = 52! / 5! 47 !

T = 2598560 possibilities.

a) There are 4 ways of getting a royal flush. So the probability of getting a royal flush is

4 / 2598560 =

0.000001539

b) There are 9 hands from the 5 card hands, and also, there are 4 possible suits. So then, the probability is

9 * 4 / 2598560 =

36 / 2598560 =

0.00001385

c) There are 13 possible ways to get a four of a kind, since there are 5 cards with the poker, the remaining would be taken from the 48 remaining cards, thus

13 * 48 / 2598560 =

624 / 2598560 =

0.0002401

d) 3 of a kind in conjunction with a pair is needed to form a full house. This 3 of a kind can be gotten from any 4 suits. Then again, the pair has two cards with the same face value. So,

4! / 2! (4 - 2)! =

4! / 2! 2! = 6

That means, there are 6 possible ways to get our needed suits. Then, the probability of getting a full house is

13 * 4 * 12 * 6 / 2598560 =

3744 / 2598560 =

0.001441

e) To get a flush, all the 5 cards in the hand needs to have the same suit. Now, there are 13 different types of cards with only 5 cards being in the hand, thus

13! / 5! (13 - 5)! =

13! / 5! 8! = 1287

Now, recall that the question specifically asked us not to include any straight. There are 10 straights that can be gotten, and thus, we subtract it.

1287 - 10 = 1277

Since there are 4 suits, the probability of getting a flush is

1277 * 4 / 2598560 =

5108 / 2598560 = 0.001966

5 0
3 years ago
What is the equation of this line
aev [14]
I don’t see anything
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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