We need the full picture, you cut off the bottom part which is the most important part..
Answer: 
Step-by-step explanation:
Given
We can write it as
Express x in terms of y
Replace y be x to get the inverse
To prove, it is inverse of f(x). 
So, they are inverse of each other.
Answer: $427140
Step-by-step explanation:
Firstly, we'll add MP to the profit and this will be:
= Rs 400000 + Rs 20000
= Rs 420000
Since there is a discount of 10%, this will then be:
= 420000 - (10% × 420000)
= 420000 - 42000
= $378000
With a VAT of 13%, then the final price will be:
= $378000 + (13% × $378000)
= $378000 + (0.13 × $378000)
= $378000 + $49140
= $427140
Answer:
b+3a
Step-by-step explanation:
MN=AN+AM
AN=0.5*AB
AB=OA+OB=4a+2b
AN=2a+b
AM=OA-OM=4a-3a=a
MN=2a+b+a=3a+b
Answer:
D) 5/8
Step-by-step explanation:
Since Susie has 5 books and 8 hair pins, you get 5:8 which can be transferred into a fraction of 5/8.
