Answer: D. 
Step-by-step explanation:
1. You have the following expression given in the problem above:
÷5
2. By definition, two expression are equivalent when they are the same even though they they are written in a different form.
3. Keeping this on mind, you can rewrite the division of those two numbers as a fraction, as you can see below:

3. Then,
is the equivalent expression to 4h ÷ 5.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Note that if it has a y- intercept of 20, this means that when x = 0 , y = 20
Find the table which shows that :)
Answer:
we are looking for F
but in the question it stated that f(n) and at the end it also stated that f(1) so n=1
Step-by-step explanation:
we are using BODMAS
f(n-1)+1
f(1-1)+1=0+1
f=1
My best guss would just try to get x by its self