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e-lub [12.9K]
3 years ago
11

Major Corp. is considering the purchase of a new machine for $5,000 that will have an estimated useful life of five years and no

salvage value. The machine will increase Major's after-tax cash flow by $2,000 annually for five years. Major uses the straight-line method of depreciation and has an incremental borrowing rate of 10%. The present value factors for 10% are as follows:Ordinary annuity with five payments 3.79Annuity due for five payments 4.17Using the payback method, how many years will it take to pay back Major's initial investment in the machine?
Business
1 answer:
Mila [183]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

payback 2.5 years

Explanation:

the payback will be the point in time at which the project cash flow equal the invesmtent.

This method do not consider the time value of money so we don't have to adjust any period cashflow or outflow.

investment: 5,000

increase in cash-flow 2,000

Investment/cash flow = 5,000 / 2,000 = 2.5 years

The depreciation are not considered as this are not cash flow.

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Answer and Explanation:

The computation of each point is shown below:-

But before that we need to do the following calculations

First Issue of Bonds:

Face Value = $45,000,000

Market Value = 95% × $45,000,000

= $42,750,000

Annual Coupon Rate = 6%

Semiannual Coupon Rate = 3%

= 3% × $45,000,000

= $1,350,000

Time to Maturity = 26 years

Semiannual Period to Maturity = 52

Let semiannual YTM be i%

$42,750,000 = $1,350,000 × PVIFA(i%, 52) + $45,000,000 × PVIF(i%, 52)

N = 52

PV = -42750000

PMT = 1350000

FV = 45000000

I = 3.20%

Semiannual YTM = 3.20%

Annual YTM = 2 × 3.20%

Annual YTM = 6.40%

Before-tax Cost of Debt = 6.40%

After-tax Cost of Debt = 6.40% × (1 - 0.40)

= 3.84%

Second Issue of Bonds:

Face Value = $50,000,000

Market Value = 54% × $50,000,000

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Time to Maturity = 15 years

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Using a financial calculator:

N = 30

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Semiannual YTM = 2.075%

Annual YTM = 2 × 2.075%

= 4.15%

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After-tax Cost of Debt = 4.15% × (1 - 0.40)

= 2.49%

a. The total book value of debt is

Total Book Value of Debt = $45,000,000 + $50,000,000

= $95,000,000

b. The total market value of debt is

Total Market Value of Debt = $42,750,000 + $27,000,000

= $69,750,000

c. The estimate of the aftertax cost of debt is

Weight of first Issue of Debt is

= $42,750,000 ÷ $69,750,000

= 0.6129

Weight of second issue of Debt

= $27,000,000 ÷ $69,750,000

= 0.3871

So,  

Estimated After-tax Cost of Debt is

= 0.6129 × 3.84% + 0.3871 × 2.49%

= 3.32%

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