Answer:
k=0
Step-by-step explanation:
R(x)=kx-2x²
R(1/4)=k(1/4)-2(1/4)²=k/4-1/8
R(-1/4)=k(-1/4)-2(-1/4)²=-k/4-1/8
R(1/4)=R(-1/4)
k/4-1/8=-k/4-1/8
k/4+k/4=1/8-1/8
2k/4=0
2k=0
k=0
Hey there,
Question : <span>How to solve for x 5x-8=18+4,for x=6
Answer :
5x - 8 = 18 + 4
5(6) - 8 = 18 + 4
30 - 8 = 18 + 4
22 = 22
Thus we can say that 6x = 30
6x = 30
x = 30 / 6
= 5
Hope this helps :))
<em>~Top♥</em>
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When there are 1000 repetitions, the mean will be 5.002.
The charts that you have list the number of total heads when you flip the coin 10 times in each trial.
Multiply the total of each by the number number of heads for that category and divide by 1000.
1 x 0
8 x 1
43 x 2
117 x 3
2017 x 4
248 x 5
203 x 6
121 x 7
45 x 8
6 x 9
1 x 10
If you add up those products and divide by 1000, you have 5.002.
Using the law of large numbers, the experiment with 1000 rolls will be the closest to the theoretical amount.
Answer:
f(x) = y + (x*p)
Step-by-step explanation:
Since we are not given actual values we will need to make the function with only variables. Each variable will represent the following...
Fixed Cost: y
Cost per charm: p
Number of charms: x
Therefore, using the variables mentioned above we can combine them into the following linear function using the number of charms as our main input for our function...
f(x) = y + (x*p)
