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natita [175]
3 years ago
13

A card from a 52 card deck is lost. We then draw 2 cards from the 51 remaining cards. What is the probability they are both diam

onds?
Business
1 answer:
Nonamiya [84]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

\frac{1}{17}

Explanation:

Let D be the event that the lost card is a diamond

and D' be the event that the lost card is a non diamond

Therefore,

P(D) = \frac{13}{52} = 0.25

P(D') = \frac{39}{52} = 0.75

Now,

Event that the cards picked up are both diamonds = A

Thus,

P( A | D) = \frac{12}{51 }\times\frac{11}{50}               [ As One Diamond Card is lost ]

And,

P(A | D') = \frac{13}{51}\times\frac{12}{50}                [ As One Non-Diamond card is lost ]

Therefore,

P(A) = P(D) × P(A | D) + P(D') × P( A | D')  

= 0.25 × \frac{12}{51 }\times\frac{11}{50}  + 0.75 ×  \frac{13}{51}\times\frac{12}{50}

= \frac{1}{17}

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If your superior tells you that she will offer you a raise provided you perform additional work beyond the requirements of your
KengaRu [80]

Answer:

reward power

Explanation:

Reward power -

It refers to as the method of using rewards , so that the employee follows a particular instructions , is referred to as reward power .

The reward acts as a bait so that the employee can follow any order of the senior .

As from the given scenario of the question ,

The person works some extra hours in order to get a good increment .

Hence , from the given scenario of the question ,

The correct answer is reward power .

3 0
3 years ago
Imagine that you own a property that is exactly 2.2 acres large. You want to sell your property, but your realtor tells you that
BlackZzzverrR [31]

Answer:

8,000 m²

Explanation:

you must first change the size of your lot from acres to square miles = 2.2 acres / 640 acres per square miles = 0.0034375 square miles

now we can convert to square kilometers = 0.0034375 miles x 2.56 square kilometers per square miles 0.0055 square kilometers

there are 1,000,000 m²´per km², so you have 0.0088 km² x 1,000,000 = 8,800 m²

7 0
3 years ago
Asper Corporation has provided the following data for February. Denominator level of activity 7,700 machine-hours Budgeted fixed
Brrunno [24]

Answer:

Asper Corporation has provided the following data for February. Denominator level of activity 7,700 machine-hours Budgeted fixed manufacturing overhead costs $ 266,420 Fixed component of the predetermined overhead rate $ 34.60 per machine-hour Actual level of activity 7,900 machine-hours Standard machine-hours allowed for the actual output 8,200 machine-hours Actual fixed manufacturing overhead costs $ 259,960 The budget variance for February is $6,460 Favorable.

Explanation:

Budgeted fixed manufacturing overhead cost = $266,420.

Actual fixed manufacturing overhead costs  = $259,960

The budget variance for February is calculated as below:

Budget Variance = Actual Fixed Manufacturing Overheads - Budgeted Fixed Manufacturing Overheads

Budget Variance =$259,960 - $ 266,420.

Budget Variance = -$6,460

Budget Variance = $6,460 Favorable

7 0
3 years ago
In social media, negative comments and complaints can illuminate unknown brand flaws.
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7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
1. Compute a single plantwide overhead rate for the year, assuming that the company assigns overhead based on 125,000 budgeted d
melamori03 [73]

Answer:

a. $17.44 per hour

b. $43,600 ; $104,640

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

a. Single plantwide overhead rate equals to

= Total Overhead Amount ÷ Budgeted Direct Labor Hours

where,

Total overhead amount is

= $625,000 + $900,000 + $105,000 + $175,000 + $300,000 + $75,000

= $2,180,000

And, the budgeted direct labor hours is 125,000

So, the overhead rate is

= $2,180,000 ÷ 125,000

= $17.44 per hour

2. Now the overhead cost is

For Deluxe model

= 2,500 direct labor hours × $17.44 per hour

= $43,600

For basic model

= 6,000 direct labor hours × $17.44 per hour

= $104,640

7 0
3 years ago
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