Distribute:
-4x+28=36
Subtract 28 from both sides:
-4x=8
Divide both sides by -4;
x=-2
The answer is x=-2
Okie I'll follow U Sarangheo
Answer:
The focus should be on paying off Card 1 first
Step-by-step explanation:
The credit limit for card 1 is $10,000,invariably the cardholder only $ 1,687.31
($10,000-$8,312.69) to reach its limit,hence available balance to draw from and also the annual percentage rate is higher for card card 1.
For every balance in card 1, the cardholder pays 24.16% APR annually compared to 21.15% applicable to card,as a result,card is cheaper.
Besides,the cardholder still has an available credit of $ 6,319.66
($7,500-$1,180.34) on card 2 which comes at a lower APR
Answer:
E. 4/6 = 18/x
Step-by-step explanation:
4 hour using 6 logs
18 hours using x logs
Answer:
$86.40
Step-by-step explanation:
80 + 8%= 86.40