Answer:
WACC = 0.16637 OR 16.637%
Explanation:
WACC or weighted average cost of capital is the cost of a firm's capital structure which can comprise of debt, preferred stock and common equity. The WACC for a firm with only debt and common equity can be calculated as follows,
WACC = wD * rD * (1-tax rate) + wE * rE
Where,
- w represents the weight of each component based on market value in the capital structure
- r represents the cost of each component
- D and E represents debt and equity respectively
To calculate WACC, we first need to calculate the Market value an cost of equity.
The market value of equity = 30 million shares * $40 per share
MV of equity = $1200 million
The cost of equity can be found using the formula for Price today (P0) under constant growth model of DDM.
P0 = D1 / (r - g)
40 = 4 / (r - 0.07)
40 * (r - 0.07) = 4
40r - 2.8 = 4
40r = 4+2.8
r = 6.8 / 40
r = 0.17 or 17%
MV of debt = 40 million * 96.5% => $38.6 million
Total MV of capital structure = 38.6 + 1200 = 1238.6 million
WACC = 38.6/1238.6 * 0.08 * (1-0.33) + 1200/1238.6 * 0.17
WACC = 0.16637 OR 16.637%
True , Cyclical unemployment can be negative.
Explanation:
Cyclical unemployment may be negative as well — when the economy hits its productivity and will be in the economic growth cycle process (works outside its PPC), then cyclical unemployment will be negative. The current unemployment rate is below the standard rate of unemployment.
The given statements are different in each scenario.
There are three elements of employment:
• Structural unemployment, which happens when Jobless people are also not qualified to work
• Frictional unemployment, due to the time needed to find one another by job-seekers and accessible employers
• Cyclical unemployment, because of the status of the business cycle unemployment
The best method to make money would be the best
Answer:
$20,857.24
Explanation:
This is an ordinary annuity question which can be solved using a financial calculator. The inputs are as follows;
Total duration of investment; N = 5
Interest rate per year; I/Y = 6%
Recurring annual payment; PMT = 3,700
One time cashflow; PV = 0
then compute the future value of the annuity; CPT FV = 20,857.244
Therefore, Jan will have $20,857.24 as down payment in 5 years.
The profit motive
Hope this helped!
STSN
