Answer:
9%
Explanation:
Real interest rate is the difference between nominal interest rate and inflation rate (i.e. real interest rate = Nominal interest rate - rate of inflation).
Therefore, Nominal interest rate would be calculated by adding real interest rate of 3% to an inflation rate of 6%, which gives 9%.
While the nominal interest rate is the actual interest rate paid to investors, the real interest rate is what gets to to the investor's pocket in terms of purchasing power.
Answer:
B. Increasing the production of a good requires larger and larger decreases in the production of another good.
Explanation:
Opportunity cost refers to the foregone units of production of a good in exchange for producing units of another good.
Marginal cost on the other hand refers to additional cost incurred when an additional unit is produced.
Marginal opportunity cost relates to the additional opportunity cost incurred when additional unit of second good is produced in exchange for foregoing or sacrificing units of production of first good.
Increasing marginal opportunity cost would mean as more and more units of good A are produced, for each extra unit of production of Good A, higher units of production of Good B are sacrificed i.e larger and larger decrease in the production of another good.
Answer:
c. wages may stay at above-equilibrium levels for an extended period of time, thus keeping unemployment high.
Explanation:
Sticky wage theory -
According to this theory , the payment of the employees have a slow response for the change in the performance of the company or the economy .
From this theory , as the unemployment increases , the wages of the employed candidates tends to remain same or increases very slowly due to to decrease in the demand of the labor .
In this case , the wages are sticky - down , as they move up easily but get down with difficulty .
Answer:
The 1-year HPR for the second stock is <u>12.84</u>%. The stock that will provide the better annualized holding period return is <u>Stock 1</u>.
Explanation:
<u>For First stock </u>
Total dividend from first stock = Dividend per share * Number quarters = $0.32 * 2 = $0.64
HPR of first stock = (Total dividend from first stock + (Selling price after six months - Initial selling price per share)) / Initial selling price = ($0.64 + ($31.72 - $27.85)) / $27.85 = 0.1619, or 16.19%
Annualized holding period return of first stock = HPR of first stock * Number 6 months in a year = 16.19% * 2 = 32.38%
<u>For Second stock </u>
Total dividend from second stock = Dividend per share * Number quarters = $0.67 * 4 = $2.68
Since you expect to sell the stock in one year, we have:
Annualized holding period return of second stock = The 1-year HPR for the second stock = (Total dividend from second stock + (Selling price after six months - Initial selling price per share)) / Initial selling price = ($2.68+ ($36.79 - $34.98)) / $34.98 = 0.1284, or 12.84%
Since the Annualized holding period return of first stock of 32.38% is higher than the Annualized holding period return of second stock of 12.84%. the first stock will provide the better annualized holding period return.
The 1-year HPR for the second stock is <u>12.84</u>%. The stock that will provide the better annualized holding period return is <u>Stock 1</u>.
Answer:
About 250 ; 2000 bicycles
Explanation:
Opportunity cost simply means the loss incurred on a certain option when the alternative opruoonos chosen.
The opportunity cost of increasing shoe production from 10,000 to 20,000 pairs
The value of 20,000 (x axis) on the y axis is about 3750
Value of point A in the y - axis = 4000
Hence opportunity cost = (4000 - 3750) = 250 bicycles
B.)
The opportunity cost of increasing shoe production from 50,000 to 60,000 pairs
The value of 60,000 (x axis) on the y axis is about 0
Value of point B in the y - axis = 2000
Hence opportunity cost = (2000 - 0) = 2000 bicycles
